There are two blue marbles so you have a 2/8 probability of drawing a blue marble on each draw since the marble is replaced after the first draw. 2/8 can be simplified to be 1/4 and then converted to be 0.25 per draw. 0.25 plus 0.25 equals 0.5. Since we are dealing with percentages multiply 0.5 x 100 which equals 50. Now take 50 and divided by the total number of marbles in the bag which is 8. 50 divided by 8 equals 6.25. So it would be about 6%.
Answer:
- 6
Step-by-step explanation:
Step 1:
x ÷ 3 - 5 = - 7 Equation
Step 2:
x ÷ 3 = - 2 Add 5 on both sides
Answer:
x = - 6 Multiply 3 on both sides
Hope This Helps :)
You said X = (5y+1) / (y-2)
Multiply each side by (y-2):
X(y-2) = (5y+1)
Eliminate parentheses:
Xy - 2X = 5y + 1
Add 2X to each side:
Xy = 5y + 1 + 2X
Subtract 5y from each side:
(X-5)y = 1 + 2X
Divide each side by (X-5):
<em>y = (1+2X) / (X-5) </em>
Answer: 3/8
Step-by-step explanation: If you put it into the slope formula, you would get 18 - 9 / 19 - (-5) which simplifies to 9/24 and then to 3/8.
