Answer: 9.312 m/s
Explanation:
The friction force (opposite to the motion) is Fa = μ*m*g*cos(α) with μ = kinetic friction. The force that makes the motion is
F = m*g*sin(α).
The Newton's law gives:
F - Fa = m*a
m*g*sin(α) - μ*m*g*cos(α) = m*a
g*sin(α) - μ*g*cos(α) = a so a = 4.335 m/s²
It's a uniformly accelerated motion:
Space
S = 0.5*a*t²
10 = 0.5*a*t²
=> t = 2.148 s
Velocity
V = a*t = 9.312 m/s.
Answer:
i think maybe because it has more than 6 or 5 parts.
Answer:
Because the mechanical advantage of the machine is affected by friction and weight but velocity ratio is not. So, mechanical advantage is less than velocity rate. Thus, the machine's efficiency is less than 100% and can't be a perfect machine
