Answer:
job B
Explanation:
.05*50000=2500 and he gets 1000 so his total would be 3500
Answer: $670
Explanation:
Since the quoted price of $.35, the cost to purchase two WXO 30 call option will be: = $0.35 × 2 = $0.70
Then, the price of RADM 30 call option contract will be calculated as;
= $33.7 - $30
= $3.70
The net gain on one RADM 30 call option will then be:
= $3.70 - $0.35
= $3.35.
Therefore, the net gain on 2 RADM30 call options will be:
= $3.35 × 2
= $6.70
Since there are 100 shares in a option contract, the gain will be:
= $6.70 × 100
= $670
Answer:
The answer is: There was no consumer surplus in this situation.
Explanation:
consumer surplus refers to the difference between the maximum amount a consumer is willing to pay for a good or service and the actual price of the good or service.
In this case there was no consumer surplus, since Stacey was willing to pay only $2 for a bottle of mineral water and its price was $2.25, so she didn't buy it.
The correct option is (a) sales; average book value of fixed assets.
The fixed asset turnover ratio is computed as sales divided by average book value of fixed assets.
The fixed asset turnover ratio demonstrates the effectiveness of a company's current fixed assets in driving sales. A greater ratio suggests that management is making better use of its fixed assets. No information can be gleaned from a high FAT ratio about a company's capacity to produce reliable earnings or cash flows.
The ratio of sales to the value of fixed assets is known as fixed-asset turnover. It shows how effectively the company is generating sales by utilizing its fixed assets.
A greater ratio is typically preferred since it suggests that the business is effective at producing sales or revenues from its asset base. A lower ratio suggests that a business is not utilizing its resources effectively and may be experiencing internal issues.
Learn more about fixed asset turnover ratio
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Answer:
The value of the firm is $1,485,000
Explanation:
For computing the value of the firm, first, we have to compute the price per share which equals to
= Borrowed amount ÷ repurchase shares
= $220,000 ÷ 20,000
= $11 per share
Now, the value of the firm should be computed. The formula is used which is shown below:
= Price per share × Number of outstanding shares
= $11 × 135,000 shares
= $1,485,000
Hence, the value of the firm is $1,485,000
