Answer: fx-2 i believe since translating down would subtract two
Step-by-step explanation:
The quotient will be less that 34 because 78 divided by 34 is 2
A regular savings account
Answer:
1.2
Step-by-step explanation:
The variance of a binomial distribution is:
σ² = n p (1 − p)
where n is the number of trials and p is the probability of success.
Given n = 5 and p = 0.40:
σ² = 5 (0.40) (1 − 0.40)
σ² = 1.2
Is .26 as it shows in the picture I hope this helps
