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balu736 [363]
2 years ago
11

Re-solve please. 2 5/6 + (-1 4/12) =

Mathematics
2 answers:
wel2 years ago
7 0
2 5/6 + (-1 4/12= 1.5 I really hope it helps and sorry if its incorrect!
elena-s [515]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1.5 as decimal, 1 1/2 as a fraction

Step-by-step explanation:

1. convert 2 5/6 & (-1 4/12) to a improper fraction.

17/6 and  -16/12

2. multiply 17/6 by 2 to match -16/12's denominator

17/6 * 2 = 34/12

We now have

34/12 + -16/12

A positive number plus a negative number is the same thing as subtraction so we remove the negative sign and replace the plus with a minus sign.

We have:

\frac{34}{12}-\frac{16}{12}

Now solve. 34-16 = 18

our answer is 18/12

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kompoz [17]

Answer:

cool

Step-by-step explanation:

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    - 7     - 7

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8 0
3 years ago
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If the correlation coefficient has a negative value, then the coefficient of determination:_________.a. can take on either a neg
GarryVolchara [31]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The sign of r depends on the sign of the estimated slope coefficient b1:

If b1 is negative, then r takes a negative sign.

If b1 is positive, then r takes a positive sign.

That is, the estimated slope and the correlation coefficient r always share the same sign. Furthermore, because r2 is always a number between 0 and 1, the correlation coefficient r is always a number between -1 and 1.

One advantage of r is that it is unitless, allowing researchers to make sense of correlation coefficients calculated on different data sets with different units. The "unitless-ness" of the measure can be seen from an alternative formula for r, namely:

r=∑ni=1(xi−x¯)(yi−y¯)∑ni=1(xi−x¯)2∑ni=1(yi−y¯)2−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√

If x is the height of an individual measured in inches and y is the weight of the individual measured in pounds, then the units for the numerator is inches × pounds. Similarly, the units for the denominator is inches × pounds. Because they are the same, the units in the numerator and denominator cancel each other out, yielding a "unitless" measure.

Another formula for r that you might see in the regression literature is one that illustrates how the correlation coefficient r is a function of the estimated slope coefficient b1:

r=∑ni=1(xi−x¯)2−−−−−−−−−−−−√∑ni=1(yi−y¯)2−−−−−−−−−−−√×b1

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Answer:
\frac{(w-3)(w-4)}{(w+5)(w-4)}

If we want to expand the brackets, the fraction would be:
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Explanation:
First, we can note that:
w² + w - 20 can be factorized as follows:
w² + w - 20 = (w+5)(w-4)

The given expression already has a (w+5) in the denominator, therefore, all we need to do is multiply the denominator by (w-4)

Since we want the new fraction to be equivalent to the original one, therefore, as we multiply the denominator by (w-4), we will also multiply the numerator by (w-4) to ensure that the value of the fraction is unchanged.

Based on the above, the new fraction would be:
\frac{(w-3)(w-4)}{(w+5)(w-4)}

If we want to expand the brackets, the fraction would be:
\frac{w^2 - 7w + 12}{w^2 + w - 20}

Hope this helps :)
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3 years ago
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Citrus2011 [14]

Answer:

Hey! I'd love to help I'm just slightly confused how to do this with no graph or how to show you, I'd love to help I'm just not exactly sure how :)

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