Answer:
- -20 = 20
Step-by-step explanation:
The "opposite" here means we take the negative of -20 C.
So we can write - -20 which is equal to 20.
So the first option is correct, - -20 = 20.
Using simpler trigonometric identities, the given identity was proven below.
<h3>
How to solve the trigonometric identity?</h3>
Remember that:

Then the identity can be rewritten as:

Now we can multiply both sides by cos⁴(x) to get:

Now we can use the identity:
sin²(x) + cos²(x) = 1

Thus, the identity was proven.
If you want to learn more about trigonometric identities:
brainly.com/question/7331447
#SPJ1
The Karger's algorithm relates to graph theory where G=(V,E) is an undirected graph with |E| edges and |V| vertices. The objective is to find the minimum number of cuts in edges in order to separate G into two disjoint graphs. The algorithm is randomized and will, in some cases, give the minimum number of cuts. The more number of trials, the higher probability that the minimum number of cuts will be obtained.
The Karger's algorithm will succeed in finding the minimum cut if every edge contraction does not involve any of the edge set C of the minimum cut.
The probability of success, i.e. obtaining the minimum cut, can be shown to be ≥ 2/(n(n-1))=1/C(n,2), which roughly equals 2/n^2 given in the question.Given: EACH randomized trial using the Karger's algorithm has a success rate of P(success,1) ≥ 2/n^2.
This means that the probability of failure is P(F,1) ≤ (1-2/n^2) for each single trial.
We need to estimate the number of trials, t, such that the probability that all t trials fail is less than 1/n.
Using the multiplication rule in probability theory, this can be expressed as
P(F,t)= (1-2/n^2)^t < 1/n
We will use a tool derived from calculus that
Lim (1-1/x)^x as x->infinity = 1/e, and
(1-1/x)^x < 1/e for x finite.
Setting t=(1/2)n^2 trials, we have
P(F,n^2) = (1-2/n^2)^((1/2)n^2) < 1/e
Finally, if we set t=(1/2)n^2*log(n), [log(n) is log_e(n)]
P(F,(1/2)n^2*log(n))
= (P(F,(1/2)n^2))^log(n)
< (1/e)^log(n)
= 1/(e^log(n))
= 1/n
Therefore, the minimum number of trials, t, such that P(F,t)< 1/n is t=(1/2)(n^2)*log(n) [note: log(n) is natural log]
Answer:
3.75
Step-by-step explanation:
4x+9=24
4x=24-9
4x=15
x=15/4
x=3.75