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2 years ago

Two points have opposite x-coordinates and opposite y-coordinates. Which is a possible graph of these points?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Zarrin [17]2 years ago

7 0

Answer: B. A coordinate plane with points in quadrants II and IV.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's take the point (-1,1) as an example

The point itself is in the second quadrant

the opposite of the point is (1,-1)

This point is in the fourth quadrant

Paladinen [302]2 years ago

6 0

Answer: B. A coordinate plane with points in quadrants II and IV.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's take the point (-1,1) as an example

The point itself is in the second quadrant

the opposite of the point is (1,-1)

This point is in the fourth quadrant

calculate and you welcome

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PLs help me out what is 54 divied by 343

irga5000 [103]

Answer:

The answer is 0.157

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope it helps

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3 years ago

A family is planning to sell their home. If they want to be left with $116,100 after paying 10% of the selling price to a realto

Blizzard [7]

116100 will be 90% of the selling price
The will need to sell for 116100 / 90 x 100 = $129000

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2 years ago

Sarah visited a tree nursery. She measured and recorded the heights of some young trees. This line plot shows her results. How m

nevsk [136]

2 3/4 because if you do the math good you get this

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3 years ago

Suppose that 50% of all babies born in a particular hospital are boys. If 6 babies born in the hospital are randomly selected, w

WINSTONCH [101]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.3438 = 34.38% probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

The parameters are:

x is the number of successes.

n is the number of trials.

p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem, the values of the parameters are given as follows:

n = 6, p = 0.5.

The probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys is given by:

$P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)$

In which:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{6} = 0.0156$

$P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{5} = 0.0938$

$P(X = 2) = C_{6,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{4} = 0.2344$

Then:

$P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0156 + 0.0938 + 0.2344 = 0.3438$

0.3438 = 34.38% probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

7 0

2 years ago

Find measure angle 1

STatiana [176]

Answer:

60°

Step-by-step explanation:

Opposite interior angles are equal.

5 0

3 years ago