Answer:
WACC = 11.13%
Explanation:
total market value common stocks = 31,500 x $78 = $2,457,000
total market value of preferred stock = 7,250 x $94.50 = $685,125
total market value of debt = $401,000 x 1.105 = $443,105
total = $3,575,230
Rcs = 13.05%
Rps = $7.70 / $94.50 = 8.15%
Rd = 8.05%
WACC = ($2,457,000/$3,575,230 x 13.05%) + ($685,125/$3,575,230 x 8.15%) + ($443,105/$3,575,230 x 8.05% x 60%) = 8.968% + 1.562% + 0.6% = 11.13%
Answer:
Foreign currency transaction loss : $1000
Account payable : $1000
Explanation:
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The GAAP established that when the benefits of obtaining accounting information are lower than the costs of providing that information, the information should not be provided.
For example, sometimes there are very small differences in certain accounts that don't allow a balance sheet to be balanced. If the accounting error is very small, e.g. just a few hundred dollars, then it is not reasonable to have a whole audit team check all the financial statements again to determine what caused the error. An adjusting entry could be made to close the account balances.
Imagine you are an auditor that must check the physical inventory of a factory and some boxes containing supplies are misplaced. It might take you a whole day to count again all the supplies and materials, but is it worth it? If the supplies were really expensive, probably yes, but if they were cheap components, then probably no.
Answer:
B. The value of a perpetuity is equal to the sum of the present value of its expected future cash flows.
C. The current value of a perpetuity is based more on the discounted value of its nearer (in time) cash flows and less by the discounted value of its more distant (in the future) cash flows.
Explanation:
A Perpetuity is a financial instrument that pays the holder forever or in perpetuity. For example, a bank paying you $800 per year for ever because you invested $40,000.
There are certain characteristics
Option B
The Perpetuity like most financial Securities has its value based on the underlying cashflows that it can accumulate. This means that it's value is based on the present value of it's future cashflow so the other the cash payments, the higher the present value.
Option C.
As the discounted cashflows in the nearer future will be discounted less by the discount rate as opposed to the cash flows further in future, the cashflows nearer to the present in time will contribute more to the Perpetuity than the cashflows further in time.
For example using that first example, $800 per year at a rate of 5% will be discounted to $762 in the first year but in year 10 will be discounted to $491.
Answer:
Option A is the correct answer,no adjustment is needed.
Explanation:
When related companies sell to each other,the sales transaction is not sales in actual sense,as it is likened to the left hand of an individual exchanging cash with the right hand,in other words, the cash is still owned by the same person.
The same concept is applicable to subsidiaries and parent,the sales recorded from a group perspective is when they sold to external third parties.
When sales happen between related companies, a provision for unrealized profits has to be made to the tune of inventory purchased from related companies not yet sold externally,as the whole of the goods have been to third parties, no such provision or adjustment is required.
