Leo is purchasing a bike that is on sale for 30% off. He knows the function that represents the sale price of his bike is c(p) =
1 answer:
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Answer:
And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:
And replacing we got:
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
Solution to the problem
For this case we want this probability:
And we can use the complement rule and we got:
And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:
And replacing we got:
Answer:
No; Because g'(0) ≠ g'(1), i.e. 0≠2, then this function is not differentiable for g:[0,1]→R
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming: the function is in [0,1]
And rewriting it for the sake of clarity:
Does there exist a differentiable function g : [0, 1] →R such that g'(x) = f(x) for all g(x)=x² ∈ [0, 1]? Justify your answer
1) A function is considered to be differentiable if, and only if both derivatives (right and left ones) do exist and have the same value. In this case, for the Domain [0,1]:
2) Examining it, the Domain for this set is smaller than the Real Set, since it is [0,1]
The limit to the left
g'(x)=f(x) then g'(0)=f(0) and g'(1)=f(1)
3) Since g'(0) ≠ g'(1), i.e. 0≠2, then this function is not differentiable for g:[0,1]→R
Because this is the same as to calculate the limit from the left and right side, of g(x).
This is what the Bilateral Theorem says: