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2 years ago

The primary policy tool used by the fed to meet its monetary policy goals is.

Business

1 answer:

Makovka662 [10]2 years ago

5 0

The primary tool used by the Fed to achieve monetary policy goals is <u>Open Market Operations.</u>

<h3>What are Open Market Operations (OMO)?</h3>

This refers to the trading of securities by the fed.
Securities traded include bills, notes, and bonds.

When the fed wants to increase the money supply, they will buy these securities from the public. If it is a decrease they they seek, they will sell securities to the public.

In conclusion, this is Open Market Operations.

Find out more about Open Market Operations at brainly.com/question/14256204.

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The following information was taken from the financial statements of Tolbert Inc. for December 31 of the current fiscal year: Co

ale4655 [162]

Answer:

(a) the earnings per share = $3

(b) the price-earnings ratio = 8x

(d) the dividend yield = 1.04%

Explanation:

Common Stock Outstanding = 5,250,000/25 = 210,000 shares

Preferred Stock Outstanding = 6,000,000/200 = 30,000 shares

Preferred Stock Dividend per share = $4

(a) Earnings Per Share

EPS = <u>Net Income - Preferred Dividend</u>

Common Stock Outstanding

EPS = <u>750,000 - (30,000 * 4)</u>

210,000

EPS = <u>630,000</u>

210,000

EPS = $3

(b) Price-Earnings Ratio

Market Price = $24

EPS = $3

P/E ratio = <u>Market Price</u>

EPS

P/E ratio = 24/3

P/E ratio = 8x

(c) Dividends Per Share

DPS = <u> Total Dividends </u>

Common Stock Outstanding

DPS = 52,500/210,000

DPS = $0.25

(d) Dividend Yield

DY = <u>Dividend Per Share</u>

Price

DY = 0.25/24

DY = 1.04%

6 0

3 years ago

Most organizations spend more time and money on the systems ________ phase than on any of the other phases. Group of answer choi

mariarad [96]

Answer:

maintenance phase

Explanation:

Maintenance phase -

It refers to the phase of making the changes in the software , hardware and documentation to improve the operations effectively , is referred to as the maintenance phase .

The phase is important , as it enhances the efficiency and corrects the problem .

The company or the organisation tries to invest the maximum amount in the maintenance phase .

Hence , from the given statement of the question,

The correct option is maintenance phase .

6 0

2 years ago

If a company rents a warehouse, it must pay rent for the warehouse whether it is full of inventory or completely vacant. Other e

Aleksandr [31]

As the output is increased or decreased, these (B) fixed costs remain unchanged.

<h3>What are fixed costs?</h3>

Fixed costs, also known as indirect costs or overhead costs in accounting and economics, are corporate expenses that are independent of the volume of goods or services generated by the business.
They are usually recurrent, such as monthly interest or rent.
These expenses are frequently capital expenses.

<h3>Explanation -</h3>

Dependent refers to a variable that changes when other factors change.
Fixed cost refers to a cost that doesn't change when the number of goods produced increases or decreases.
Opportunity cost refers to the benefit that you would have received from the option that was not chosen.
Marginal cost refers to the change in the cost when you produce an additional unit.
According to this definition and as the statement refers to a cost that doesn't change.

Therefore, as the output is increased or decreased, these (B) fixed costs remain unchanged.

Know more about fixed costs here:

brainly.com/question/3636923

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Complete question:

If a company rents a warehouse, it must pay rent for the warehouse whether it is full of inventory or completely vacant. Other examples include executives' salaries, interest expenses, depreciation, and insurance expenses. As the output is increased or decreased, these _______ costs remain unchanged.

a. dependent

b. fixed

c. opportunity

d. marginal

5 0

1 year ago

In mid-2015, Qualcomm Inc. had $13 billion in debt, total equity market value of $87 billion and an equity beta of 1.41. Include

lesya692 [45]

Answer:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Asset Beta of Qualcomm’s business = 1.29

C) Qualcomm's WACC= 7.931%

Explanation:

The question relates to Capital asset pricing model (CAPM) which is used to calculate the required return from an investment given the level of risk associated with the investment. Now there are many risk that the level of cash flows and hence the required return from an investment such as systematic and unsystematic risks, business and finance risks etc.

The requirements of the question are as follows:

a)What is Qualcomm’s enterprise value?

b)What is the beta of Qualcomm’s business assets?

c)What is Qualcomm’s WACC?

The first two requirements will help us compute requirement C so we begin solving it form A as follows:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= ve- vd +va

ve= value of equity

vd= value of debt

va= value of asset

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $87b - $13b +$21b

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Beta of Qualcomm’s business assets:

Now beta is an index used to measure systematic risks (risks posed by macro-economic factors such as tax, interest rates etc). There are two beta indexes, asset beta and equity beta. Asset beta measures business risks only and equity beta measures both business and finance risks. In the question we already have equity beta so we need to calculate asset beta in order to compute Qualomm's WACC.

ba = be× ve/enterprise value

ba = asset beta

be= equity beta

ba= 1.41× $87÷$95

Beta of Qualcomm's business= 1.29

C) Qualcomm’s WACC:

The formula is as follows:

Ke= Rf + (market premium)× ba

ke = WACC

Rf= risk free rate of interest

ba= asset beta

ke= 2.9% + (3.9% ×1.29)

ke/WACC= 7.931%

8 0

3 years ago

What is the primary objective for a for-profit business

sattari [20]

Answer:

the primary objective, or purpose of a for-profit business is to maximize profits for the owners while maintaining corporate social responsibility.

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4 0

3 years ago