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nexus9112 [7]
3 years ago
8

What is 87 x 54 - 200 divided by 7

Mathematics
1 answer:
Svet_ta [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

87 x 54 - 200 divided by 7
solving-4669[3|7] , 4669.428571
answer-32686.7

Step-by-step explanation:

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slava [35]

Answer:

8 7/10

Step-by-step explanation:

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How many times does 5 go into 2565?
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5 goes into 2565...... 513 times because 2656 divided by 5 equals 513 2565 / 5 = 513
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A prticular type of tennis racket comes in a midsize versionand an oversize version. sixty percent of all customers at acertain
svetlana [45]

Answer:

a) P(x≥6)=0.633

b) P(4≤x≤8)=0.8989 (one standard deviation from the mean).

c) P(x≤7)=0.8328

Step-by-step explanation:

a) We can model this a binomial experiment. The probability of success p is the proportion of customers that prefer the oversize version (p=0.60).

The number of trials is n=10, as they select 10 randomly customers.

We have to calculate the probability that at least 6 out of 10 prefer the oversize version.

This can be calculated using the binomial expression:

P(x\geq6)=\sum_{k=6}^{10}P(k)=P(6)+P(7)+P(8)+P(9)+P(10)\\\\\\P(x=6) = \binom{10}{6} p^{6}q^{4}=210*0.0467*0.0256=0.2508\\\\P(x=7) = \binom{10}{7} p^{7}q^{3}=120*0.028*0.064=0.215\\\\P(x=8) = \binom{10}{8} p^{8}q^{2}=45*0.0168*0.16=0.1209\\\\P(x=9) = \binom{10}{9} p^{9}q^{1}=10*0.0101*0.4=0.0403\\\\P(x=10) = \binom{10}{10} p^{10}q^{0}=1*0.006*1=0.006\\\\\\P(x\geq6)=0.2508+0.215+0.1209+0.0403+0.006=0.633

b) We first have to calculate the standard deviation from the mean of the binomial distribution. This is expressed as:

\sigma=\sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{10*0.6*0.4}=\sqrt{2.4}=1.55

The mean of this distribution is:

\mu=np=10*0.6=6

As this is a discrete distribution, we have to use integer values for the random variable. We will approximate both values for the bound of the interval.

LL=\mu-\sigma=6-1.55=4.45\approx4\\\\UL=\mu+\sigma=6+1.55=7.55\approx8

The probability of having between 4 and 8 customers choosing the oversize version is:

P(4\leq x\leq 8)=\sum_{k=4}^8P(k)=P(4)+P(5)+P(6)+P(7)+P(8)\\\\\\P(x=4) = \binom{10}{4} p^{4}q^{6}=210*0.1296*0.0041=0.1115\\\\P(x=5) = \binom{10}{5} p^{5}q^{5}=252*0.0778*0.0102=0.2007\\\\P(x=6) = \binom{10}{6} p^{6}q^{4}=210*0.0467*0.0256=0.2508\\\\P(x=7) = \binom{10}{7} p^{7}q^{3}=120*0.028*0.064=0.215\\\\P(x=8) = \binom{10}{8} p^{8}q^{2}=45*0.0168*0.16=0.1209\\\\\\P(4\leq x\leq 8)=0.1115+0.2007+0.2508+0.215+0.1209=0.8989

c. The probability that all of the next ten customers who want this racket can get the version they want from current stock means that at most 7 customers pick the oversize version.

Then, we have to calculate P(x≤7). We will, for simplicity, calculate this probability substracting P(x>7) from 1.

P(x\leq7)=1-\sum_{k=8}^{10}P(k)=1-(P(8)+P(9)+P(10))\\\\\\P(x=8) = \binom{10}{8} p^{8}q^{2}=45*0.0168*0.16=0.1209\\\\P(x=9) = \binom{10}{9} p^{9}q^{1}=10*0.0101*0.4=0.0403\\\\P(x=10) = \binom{10}{10} p^{10}q^{0}=1*0.006*1=0.006\\\\\\P(x\leq 7)=1-(0.1209+0.0403+0.006)=1-0.1672=0.8328

7 0
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Form a paragraph proof for the following. Make sure you include all the
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Answer:

Line BD is Congruent to Line BD due to the Reflexive property. Angle Bad is congruent to angle BCD because of the third angle theorem therefore triangle ABD is congruent to triangle CBD because all angles and sides are congruent

I don't know if that will satisfy your teacher because some prefer different things but that leaves no ground to be inferred and explains everything word for word.

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Students in Ms. Bell’s geometry class created posters of geometric definitions. Which of the following is the most precise defin
ohaa [14]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

D is missing 2 ideas.

  • An angle can be formed by a mixture of the types of figures quoted.
  • An angle has common or shared endpoint.

B: to me is unclear. A line does not have an endpoint. A ray does.

A: you need to mention that the lines are coplanar.

I think, brief though it is, C is the most complete and at the same time simplest choice.

5 0
3 years ago
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