Answer:
c. $4,000
Explanation:
The computation of the depreciation expense for year 2 under straight-line method is shown below:
= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (useful life)
= ($25,000 - $5,000) ÷ (5 years)
= ($20,000) ÷ (5 years)
= $4,000
In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life i.e $4,000 is charged for remaining three years
Answer:
E. The quantity of beef supplied decreases and the supply of beef is unchanged.
Explanation:
In the market for beef, the price of a pound of beef falls. The effect is "the quantity of beef supplied decreases and the supply of beef is <u>unchanged</u>. The reason is that any price change of the product will not shift the demand or supply but changes the quantity supplied.
Answer:
The maximum investment is $6,360.111
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The placement of a new surface would reduce the annual maintenance cost to $500 per year for the first 3 years and to $1000 per year for the next 7 years. After 10 years the annual maintenance would again be $2500.
We need to find the net present value. The maximum initial investment will be the amount that makes the NPV cero.
NPV=∑[Cf/(1+i)^n]
Cf= cash flow
<u>For example:</u>
Year 1= 500/1.05= 476.19
Year 3= 500/1.05^3= 431.92
Year 5= 1,000/1.05^5= 783.53
NPV= 6,360.111
The maximum investment is $6,360.111
Answer:D.None of the option is correct, the correct answer is Buy; savings=$203,000
Explanation:
The firm will Incurred the total fixed overhead it decides to make.
The total cost of making 6000 units is $163*6000=$978,000
The total cost of buying is $144*6000= $864,000 and when we deduct $89,000 to be saved from fixed overhead by buying we have a total cost of( $864,000-$89,00) =775,000.
This invariably means the company will save ($978,000-$775,000) which is equal to= $203,000 by buying.
Answer:
The ending balance in the Allowance for Bad Debts is 20,500 CREDIT
Explanation:
The ending balance of Allowance for bad debts would be the 2.5% of sales
The adjustment is made to get the allowance for Bad Debt match the estimate uncollectible ammounts.
Notice it state <em>"company adjusted for bad debt expense"</em>
This means<u> it debit this account as much as it needed to be</u> to make allowance match the estimate allowance.
The write-off are transaction durign the period. They are irrelevant
So the ending balance is:
<em>2.5% of credit sales of 820,000 = $20,500</em>
It is important to remember that <u>Allowance is a counter-asset account</u>. His <em>normal balance is credit</em>, so the<u> final balance is credit.</u>
