Answer:
560
Step-by-step explanation:
Givens
Small mugs = 1/4 * 132 = 33
Large mugs = 132 - 33 = 99
Solution
Profit Small = 33 * £2.45 = £80.85
Profit Large = <u>99 * £4.90 = £485.10</u> Add
Total Profite = £565.95
Answer:
216π sq ft
Step-by-step explanation:
given that :
d = 12 ft => r = 12/2 = 6ft
h(cyl) = 10 ft
h(cone) = 8 ft
the surface area = ?
the solution :
the slant of cone = √r²+h²
= √6²+8²= √100 = 10 ft
the surface area of silo =
the lateral area of cone + the lateral area of cylinder + the base area
= π×r×slant + 2×π×r×h(cyl) + π×r²
= π×6×10 + 2×π×6×10 + π×6²
= 60π + 120π + 36π
= 216π sq ft
Answer:
The correct answer is NO.
Step-by-step explanation:
John is graphing two lines with equations say ax + by + c = 0 and dx + ey +f =0 on his graphing calculator.
For John to get a unique solution the coefficients should follow the following condition
. So when he plots the lines he get an intersecting pair of lines.
For John to get no solution the coefficients should follow the following condition
. When we plot in this case we get two parallel lines.
For John to get an infinite many solution the coefficients should follow the following condition
. And when we plot the lines in this case we get one line superimposed on the other.
Since after graphing, John sees only one line, the lines must have superimposed on one another giving John an infinite number of solutions.
Answer:
1. LM < PN
2. AD < DC
3. m<CAB < m<CBA
4. m<1 = m<2
Step-by-step explanation:
Recall: an angle measure is relative to the length of the opposite side. That is, the longer the side opposite to an angle, the larger the measure of that angle and vice versa.
1. LM is opposite to <LNM,
PN is opposite to <NLP
m<LNM is less than m<NLP, therefore,
LM < PN
2. AD is opposite to <ABD
DC is opposite to <DBC
m<ABD is less than m<DBC, therefore,
AD < DC
3. m<CAB is opposite to CB
m<CBA is opposite to CA
CB is less than CA, therefore,
m<CAB < m<CBA
4. The side opposite to <1 is congruent to the side opposite to <2.
Therefore,
m<1 = m<2