Answer:
Hi! The answer to your question is 0 8/25
Step-by-step explanation:
☆*: .。..。.:*☆☆*: .。..。.:*☆☆*: .。..。.:*☆☆*: .。..。.:*☆
☁Brainliest is greatly appreciated!☁
Hope this helps!!
- Brooklynn Deka
0.25 and 1/4 are the same number.
If each one is the probability of some event,
then both events are equally likely.
Check the picture below.
the piecewise function, has two subfunctions or behaviours, one if x < 1, meaning less, not equals, but less than 1, so it doesn't include one, so it has a "hole" on that endpoint.
and the second behaviour of the piecewise is if x ⩾ 1, larger or equals than 1, so it includes 1, so it has a solid ball on that endpoint.
Answer:
59
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The answer is True.
Step-by-step explanation:
Sales variance is computed in same manner as cost variance that is computing both price and volume variance. However interpretation of end result will not be same. For example in material price variance if
A = actual purchase price = $ 4, B = standard purchase price= $ 5 and Qt= quantity purchased = 500 units then
Material price varaince = 500 (5-4) = 500,
This gives us favourable price variance of 500 dollars. However in sales price variance if
A = actual sales price = $ 4, B = standard sale price= $ 5 and Qt= quantity sold = 500 units then
Sale price varaince = 500 (5-4) = (500)
This gives us unfavourable sales price variance of 500 dollars.
This show that formulas to compute variances are same but sale price decrease give us un favorable variance and cost price decrease gives us favorable price variance and vice versa.