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Maslowich
2 years ago
13

The condensed financial statements of Ness Company for the years 2016 and 2017 are presented below. NESS COMPANY Balance Sheets

December 31 (in thousands) 2017 2016 Current assets Cash and cash equivalents $330 $360 Accounts receivable (net) 470 400 Inventory 460 390 Prepaid expenses 130 160 Total current assets 1,390 1,310 Property, plant, and equipment (net) 410 380 Investments 10 10 Intangibles and other assets 530 510 Total assets $2,340 $2,210 Current liabilities $820 $790 Long-term liabilities 480 380 Stockholders’ equity—common 1,040 1,040 Total liabilities and stockholders’ equity $2,340 $2,210 Compute the following ratios for 2017 and 2016.
Business
1 answer:
mash [69]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Current ratio:  (2017)=1.69;  (2016)=1.65

Quick ratio:   (2017)=1.133 ; (2016)=1.16

Debt ratio:    (2017) =.555   ; (2016)=.529

debts to equity ratio:   (2017)=1.25  ; (2016)=1.125

Explanation:

Current Assets:

Cash and cash equivalents: (2017)=330 ; (2016)=360

Account receivable (net): (2017)=470; (2016)=400

Prepaid expense: (2017)=130; (2016)=160

Inventory: (2017)=460 ; (2016)=390

Total current assets: (2017)= 1390 ; (2016)=1310

Plant property & equipment: (2017)= 410 ; (2016) =380

Investment: (2017) = 10 ; (2016)= 10

Intangible and other assets: (2017)=530 ; (2016)=510

Total Assets: (2017)=2340 ; (2016)=2210

Current liabilities: (2017)=820 ; (2016)=790

Long-term liabilities: (2017)=480 ; (2016)=380

Share holder equity - common: (2017)=1040 ; (2016)= 1040

Total liabilities and shareholder equity: (2017)= 2340 ; (2016)= 2210

Current ratios = Total Current assets/ Total Current liabilities

year (2017)=1390/820=1.69

year (2016)= 1310/790=1.65

Quick ratio =Current assets-inventory/Current liability

year (2017)=(1390-460)/820=1.134

year (2016)=(1310-390)790=1.16

Debt ratio = Total liabilities / total assets  

year (2017)=(820+480)/2340=.5555

year (2016)=(790+380)/2210=.529

Debt to equity ratio = Total liabilities/ Shareholder equity

year (2017)=1300/1040=1.25

year (2016)=1170/1040=1.125

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rosijanka [135]

Answer:

b. Britain (France)

Explanation:

The nominal exchange rate is the rate at which an individual can trade the currency of his country for another country.

According to the numbers given for exchange rates, the real exchange rate between American and foreign goods is lowest with Britain.

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3 years ago
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20. Frictional unemployment is inevitable because: A) different sectors do not shift. B) the economy needs to be lubricated. C)
Cerrena [4.2K]

Answer:

The answer is option B) Frictional unemployment is inevitable because the economy needs to be lubricated.

Explanation:

Frictional unemployment is different from others in happens as a result of employees seeking out better opportunities. They could leave voluntarily or be fired from their current jobs but its is for a greater good- which is a quest for better economic opportunity.

Frictional unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between job seekers and available jobs in the market.

It also happens due to the natural career progression for an employed staff seeking to transition to a new job, industry, or role.

Frictional unemployment is like a lubricant in the economy because an increase in frictional unemployment means more workers are moving toward better positions.

4 0
3 years ago
Shawn Company had 130 units in beginning inventory at a total cost of $13,650. The company purchased 260 units at a total cost o
Katarina [22]

Answer:

FIFO

cost of the ending inventory = $15,680

cost of goods sold  = $39,570

LIFO

cost of the ending inventory  = $10,290

cost of goods sold  = $44,960

Average Cost Method

cost of the ending inventory = $13,883.37

cost of goods sold  = $41,336.76

Explanation:

The cost of the ending inventory and the cost of goods sold under FIFO, LIFO, and average-cost are calculated as follows :

Step 1 : Determine the Number of units sold

Number of units sold = Total units available for sale - Ending units

                                   = 390 units - 98 units

                                   = 292 units

Step 2 : Determine the Number of units in inventory

Number of units in inventory = 98 units (given)

Step 3 : Use the appropriate principles to calculate required values

<u>FIFO</u>

cost of the ending inventory = 98 x $160 = $15,680

cost of goods sold = 130 units x $105 + 162 units x $160 = $39,570

<u>LIFO</u>

cost of the ending inventory = 98 x $105 = $10,290

cost of goods sold = 260 units x $160 + 32 units x $105 = $44,960

<u>Average Cost Method</u>

Unit Cost = ($13,650 + $41,600) ÷ 390 units = $141.667

therefore,

cost of the ending inventory = 98 x $141.667 = $13,883.37

cost of goods sold = 292 units x $141.667 = $41,336.76

3 0
2 years ago
Your investment portfolio consists of ​$15 comma 000 invested in only one stocklong dashAmazon. Suppose the​ risk-free rate is 5
Kay [80]

Answer:

a)

The CAPM hypothesis states that the effective market is utilized place in the market and has the maximum eminent expected return of any assortment for a given randomness and the smallest variability for a assumed expected return. By allotment utilized place in the market assortment, you can achieve a standard return,

Thus,  

Expected Rate of Return = [Risk free Rate + Beta × (Market Risk - Risk free Rate)]

Beta = [Expected Rate of Return – Risk Free Rate] / [Market Risk - Risk free Rate]

Beta = [12% - 5%] / [10% -5%]

Beta = 7/5

Beta =1.4

The final possible instability while taking the same estimated rate of return as Amazon is $21,000 ($15,000 × 1.4) which indicate that it borrows $6,000 ($21,000 - $15,000). Now the -$6,000 is specified as strength benefit. So the volatility of the asset is,

Volatility = [Volatility of Asset x Beta]

Volatility = [18% × 1.4]

Volatility = 0.252 or 25.20%

Therefore the volatility is less than the volatility of Amazon.

b)

The market share has a instability of "n". The corresponding instability of Amazon will be 2.22 (40%/18%). So the assortment with the most notable predictable give back that has a faint variability from Amazon is $33,333.33 ($15,000x 2.22) which will be the market assortment and it also uses $18,333.33 ($33,333.33 - $15,000). Here the -$18,333.33 is specified as strength asset. So the return is,

Expected Return = [Risk free Rate + Beta × (Market Risk – Risk free Rate)]

Expected Return = [5%+ 122 × (10% - 5%)]

Expected Return = [5%+ 122 × 5%]

Expected Return = [0.05+0.111111]

Expected Return = 0.161111 or1 6.11%

Therefore the volatility is higher than the expected return of Amazon.

8 0
3 years ago
About the Lagrangian method, select the correct statement: We can use it to solve consumer's utility maximization problems, but
mezya [45]

Answer:

About the Lagrangian method,

We can use it to solve both consumer's utility maximization and firm's cost minimization problems.

Explanation:

Lagrangian method is a mathematical strategy for finding the maxima and the minima of a function subject to equality constraints.  Equality constraints mean that one or more equations have to be satisfied exactly by the chosen values of the variables.  Named after the mathematician, Joseph-Louis Lagrange, the basic idea behind the Lagrangian method is to convert a constrained problem into a Lagrangian function.

8 0
2 years ago
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