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lutik1710 [3]
2 years ago
9

What is 48,148 in expanded form?

Mathematics
1 answer:
irina1246 [14]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

4 ten thousands, 8 thousands, 1 hundred, 4 tens, 8 ones.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Steve weatherspoon, a super salesman contemplating retirement on his 50th birthday, decides to create a fund on an 11% basis tha
Veronika [31]

Based on the amount that Steve Weatherspoon wants to withdraw every year beginning in June 30, 2024, and the interest rate, the balance on June 30th 2023 should be $45,203.

<h3>What should the balance be in 2023?</h3>

The fact that Steve Weatherspoon wants to be able to withdraw a particular amount every year, this makes this amount an annuity.

The value in 2023 would therefore be the present value of the annuity that will then accrue to the required amounts as the years go by.

The present value of an annuity is:

= Annuity amount per year  x Present value interest factor of an annuity, 11%, 3 years between 2024 and 2027

Solving gives:

= 13,126.25 x 3.44371

= $45,203

In conclusion, the balance on the fund in 2023 should be $45,203 in order for Steve Weatherspoon to achieve his objectives.

Find out more on the present value of an annuity at brainly.com/question/25792915

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4 0
2 years ago
What are the coordinates of the image D0.5(3,5)?
lana66690 [7]

Answer:

There isn't an image attached .

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find all the solutions of sin x + cos x = 1 in the interval [0, 2pie).
Mashcka [7]

Answer:

X = 0,  π/2 in the interval  [0, 2pi).

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the auxiliary angle method:

R sin(x + a)  = Rsin x cos a + Rcos x sin a = 1

                        sin x         +    cos x             = 1

Comparing coefficients:

R cos a = 1 and R sin a =  1, so

tan a = R sin a / R cos a  = 1

So a = π/4 radians.

Also  R^2(sin^2 a + cos^2 a) =  1^2 + 1^2 = 2

Therefore R = √2.

So √2 sin (x +π/4 = 1

sin x + π/4 = 1/√2

x  + π/4 = π/4

x = 0 radians

Also

x = 0 +  π/2 = π/2.

8 0
3 years ago
Noah has 22 5 of a pound of rice in his cupboard. He also has 8 9 of that amount in his pantry. Which of the following equations
Arada [10]

225/0.88*100%

255.68*100

25,568 pounds in pantry

8 0
2 years ago
The The Laplace Transform of a function , which is defined for all , is denoted by and is defined by the improper integral , as
guapka [62]

Answer:

a. L{t} = 1/s² b. L{1} = 1/s

Step-by-step explanation:

Here is the complete question

The The Laplace Transform of a function ft), which is defined for all t2 0, is denoted by Lf(t)) and is defined by the improper integral Lf))s)J" e-st . f(C)dt, as long as it converges. Laplace Transform is very useful in physics and engineering for solving certain linear ordinary differential equations. (Hint: think of s as a fixed constant) 1. Find Lft) (hint: remember integration by parts) A. None of these. B. O C. D. 1 E. F. -s2 2. Find L(1) A. 1 B. None of these. C. 1 D.-s E. 0

Solution

a. L{t}

L{t} = ∫₀⁰⁰e^{-st}t

Integrating by parts  ∫udv/dt = uv - ∫vdu/dt where u = t and dv/dt = e^{-st} and v = \frac{e^{-st}}{-s} and du/dt = dt/dt = 1

So, ∫₀⁰⁰udv/dt = uv - ∫₀⁰⁰vdu/dt w

So,  ∫₀⁰⁰e^{-st}t =  [\frac{te^{-st}}{-s}]₀⁰⁰ -  ∫₀⁰⁰ \frac{e^{-st}}{-s}

∫₀⁰⁰e^{-st}t =  [\frac{te^{-st}}{-s}]₀⁰⁰ -  ∫₀⁰⁰ \frac{e^{-st}}{-s}

= -1/s(∞exp(-∞s) - 0 × exp(-0s)) + \frac{1}{s} [\frac{e^{-st} }{-s}]₀⁰⁰

= -1/s[(∞exp(-∞) - 0 × exp(0)] - 1/s²[exp(-∞s) - exp(-0s)]

= -1/s[(∞ × 0 - 0 × 1] - 1/s²[exp(-∞) - exp(-0)]

= -1/s[(0 - 0] - 1/s²[0 - 1]

= -1/s[(0] - 1/s²[- 1]

= 0 + 1/s²

= 1/s²

L{t} = 1/s²

b. L{1}

L{1} = ∫₀⁰⁰e^{-st}1

= [\frac{e^{-st} }{-s}]₀⁰⁰

= -1/s[exp(-∞s) - exp(-0s)]

= -1/s[exp(-∞) - exp(-0)]

= -1/s[0 - 1]

= -1/s(-1)

= 1/s

L{1} = 1/s

6 0
3 years ago
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