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trapecia [35]
2 years ago
15

Type your answer and then click or tap done X=18 What is the angle measure?

Mathematics
1 answer:
ddd [48]2 years ago
8 0
105 because 4*18+33 equals 105
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The graph of f(x) = log x + 3
omeli [17]

Answer:

add 3 to they coordinate

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6 0
2 years ago
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This pattern follows the rule divide by 2, then add 8. What are the next two numbers?
krok68 [10]

Answer:

32, 24

Step-by-step explanation:

48 divided by 2 is 24 plus 8 is 32 then divide by 2 get 16 plus 8 is 24

3 0
3 years ago
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Complete the table for the given rule.<br> Rule: y = x + 8<br> (there’s and image with the problem.)
borishaifa [10]
<h2><em>Okay so these are the answers from top to bottom.</em></h2><h2><em>x = 2 and y = x + 8 so 2 + 8 = 10.</em></h2><h2><em>x = 0 and y = x + 8 so 0 + 8 = 8.</em></h2><h2><em>x = 4 and y = x + 8 so 4 + 8 = 12.</em></h2><h2><em>10</em></h2><h2><em>8</em></h2><h2><em>12</em></h2><h2><em>Hope this helps and have a great day...!</em></h2>
4 0
2 years ago
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Find the compound interest compounded annually on rupees 2700 rate 6 ⅔% per annum and time is 2 years​
dalvyx [7]

<u>Answer:</u>

plz mark me as brainliest ...TOOK ME LONG TIME TO TYPE

answer = CI = 3108 RUPEES

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

i am doing the method in which u find the simple interest of first year then second year.

SI FOR 1ST YEAR= P X R X T / 100

SI = 2700 X 20 X 2 / 3 X 100   ( RATE OF INTEREST IS 20 / 3)

SI = 108000/300

SI = 360

SI FOR SECOND YEAR =

P = 2700 + 360= 3060

SI = 3060 X 20 X 2 / 300

SI= 122400 / 300

SI = 408

COMPOUND INTEREST (CI) = PRINCIPLE + SI OF 2ND YEAR

CI = 2700 + 408

CI = 3108 RUPEES

or u can solve be the method

CI = amount - principle

Amount= principle x (change in ratio) raised to time

                                       ***************************************

6 0
3 years ago
{[20/(8+2)]^6+6}/(4^2/2)
Naddika [18.5K]
So for this problem we need to do order of operations so the very first step that we need to do here is (8+2) because that is the smallest enclosed symbols (8+2)=10 next divide by 20 because that is the next step in the equation which 20/10=2, so now we have {[2]^6+6} and due to order of operations the next step here is to take 2 to the power of 6 which is 64 so now we have {64+6} which is 70 so now we have 70/(4^2/2) and due to order of operations we do the parentheses first and that would mean that we do 4^2 because exponents come after parantheses like so,
70/(16/2) now we do 16/2 because its still inside the paranthesess so 16/2=8 so now we have 70/8 and that equals are end answer of 8.75 Enjoy!=)
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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