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kow [346]
3 years ago
15

An author just signed a lucrative contract with a publisher that offers to pay her the amount of $600 at the end of year 9 when

the book is scheduled to be released. The author, being profligate, desires to receive a different package: an immediate payment of $100 that is followed by an annuity (an equal amount) to be paid at the end of each year for 9 consecutive years. What annuity will make his package equivalent to the publisher's advance. Use an interest rate is 6%.
Business
1 answer:
Mademuasel [1]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

annuity = $37.51

Explanation:

future value of the annuity = $600 - future value of the initial $100 paid

$100 x 1.06⁹ = $168.95

future value of the annuity = $600 - $168.95 = $431.05

FV of an annuity = payment x {[(1 + r)ⁿ - 1] / r}

payment = FV / {[(1 + r)ⁿ - 1] / r}

  • FV = $431.05
  • r = 6%
  • n = 9

payment = $431.05 / {[1.06⁹ - 1] / 0.06} = $431.05 / {0.68948 / 0.06} = $431.05 / 11.4913 = $37.51

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A firm has issued $25 million in long-term bonds that now have 9 years remaining until maturity. The bonds carry a 9% annual cou
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

Answer:

40.43% debt financed; 6.89% after-tax cost of debt

Explanation:

In order to determine the portion of the firm financed by debt ,we need first of all ascertain the market value of the company

Market value of the firm=market value of equity+market value of debt

market value of equity=$35 million

market value of debt=$25 million*$950.12/$1000=$23.75 million

market value of firm=$ 23.75  million+$35 million= $58.75  million

portion of debt finance=market value of debt/firm's value

                                      =23.75/ 58.75 =40.43%

The after tax cost =pretax cost of debt*(1-t) where t is the tax rate of 30%

pretax cost of debt is the same yield to maturity computed using rate formula in excel

=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)

nper is the number of times the bond would pay interest which is nine times

pmt is the annual interest payment=$25 million*9%=$2.25 million

pv is the current price of the bond=$23.75 as shown above

fv is the face value of $25 million

=rate(9,2.25,-23.75,25)=9.86%

after tax cost of debt=9.86% *(1-0.3)=6.89%

6 0
3 years ago
Overhead Variance (Over- or Underapplied), Closing to Cost of Goods Sold
Bogdan [553]

Answer:

This question has two requirements answer of each requiremnt is given below.

Dispose of the overhead variance by adjusting Cost of Goods Sold. Adjusted COGS $____

Applied Overhead = 532,000 * 80% =$ 425,600

This show that overhead are over apllied, so

Adjusted COGS = $1,890,000 - (425,600 -423,600)

                            = $ 1,888,000

Calculate the overhead variance for the year. $____

Overhead variance = Applied Overhead - Actual Overhead

                                = 425,600 -423,600

                                = $ 2000 (Favorable variance)

4 0
4 years ago
Cost Flow Methods The following three identical units of Item LO3V are purchased during April: Item Beta Units Cost April 2 Purc
Lelechka [254]

Answer:

a. Gross Profit =$89, Ending Inventory = $640

b. Gross Profit =$83, Ending Inventory = $631

c. Gross Profit =$86, Ending Inventory = $634

Explanation:

FIFO

<u>a.Gross Profit</u>

Sales ( 1 unit × $403)                      $403

Less Cost of Sales ( 1 unit × $314) ($314)

Gross Profit                                       $89

<u>b. Ending Inventory</u>

Ending Inventory = Units Left × Earliest Price

                            = 2 units × $320

                            = $640

LIFO

<u>a.Gross Profit</u>

Sales ( 1 unit × $403)                        $403

Less Cost of Sales ( 1 unit × $320) ($320)

Gross Profit                                         $83

<u>b. Ending Inventory</u>

Ending Inventory : 1 unit × $314 =  $314

                               1 unit × $317 =  $317

                              Total              =  $631

Weighted Average Cost method

<u>a.Gross Profit</u>

Sales ( 1 unit × $403)                      $403

Less Cost of Sales ( 1 unit × $317) ($317)

Gross Profit                                       $86

<u>b. Ending Inventory</u>

Ending Inventory = Units Left × Average Price

                            = 2 units × $317

                            = $634

4 0
3 years ago
Which level of PPE uses APR/PAPR and also includes a chemical/splash over garment, double gloves and chemical resistant boots?
irina [24]

Answer: Level D

Explanation: Level D protection is primarily a work uniform and is used for only nuisance contamination. It requires only coveralls and safety shoes/boots. Other PPE is based upon the situation (types of gloves, etc.). It should not be worn on any site where respiratory or skin hazards exist.

6 0
3 years ago
The U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission periodically charges individuals with insider trading and claims those individuals h
Delicious77 [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is option d.

Explanation:

The effficent market hypothesis is an investment theory which advocates that the stock prices reflect all the available information. As a result, stocks are always traded at their fair value.

The strong form of efficient market says that stock prices reflect all information whether public or private.

This implies that investors cannot have more than normal profits. In the above example, the investors are able to make profit through insider information. This means that the market is less than strong form efficient.

6 0
4 years ago
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