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Aloiza [94]
3 years ago
13

What type of function is f(x) = -(x+1)(x-2)^2

Mathematics
1 answer:
fiasKO [112]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Cubic function

Step-by-step explanation:

Expand the brackets:

f(x) = -(x+1)(x-2)^2=-x^3+3x^2-4

Therefore this is a cubic function as it is a polynomial function of degree three.

This is also a many-to-one function such that more than one element of the domain are connected to the same element in the range.  For example,

f(0) = -4 and f(3) = -4.  So when x is 0 and 3, y = -4.  Hence, many-to-one.

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4 : 6.4 as a fraction <br> I need help!
grin007 [14]

Decimal to Fraction = 6 2/5

6.4 as a fraction = 32 /5

Percentage = 640%

Description =

The answer for this question will be 32 /5 because you asked that 6.4 as a fraction. If your asking to convert 6.4 to a fraction then the answer will be 6 2/5 in a mixed number.

Hope this helps.

8 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me, lol?
Setler [38]

Answer:

The modes are 9 and 11

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Whats the answer 4−d&lt;4+d
adelina 88 [10]
Isolate the variable, I would add d to both sides, creating 4<4+d+d or 4<4+2d
then subtract 4,
0<2d
d>0
4 0
4 years ago
11. Henry had a batting average of
marin [14]

The probability of getting exactly 8 hits in his next 20 at-bats is 0.153 (Round off to the nearest thousandth.).

The correct option is (c)

<h3>What is Binomial distribution?</h3>

Binomial distribution can be thought of as simply the probability of a SUCCESS or FAILURE outcome in an experiment or survey that is repeated multiple times.

Probability= C^{n}_r\; p^{r} \;q^{(n-r)

where, n= number of trial,

r= number of success desire,

p= probability of success,

q= probability of Failure

probability of success = 0.34

To find the probability of winning exactly 8 hits in next 20 at-bats we find

dbinom (8, 20, 0.34)

Since p= 0.34

q= 1-p

 = 1-0.34

 = 0.66

n= 20, r=8

Using Binomial Distribution, we get

Probability= C^{n}_r\; p^{r} \;q^{(n-r)

                 =\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!} p^{r}\; q^{(n-r)}

                 = \frac{20!}{8!(20-8)!} (0.34)^{8}\; (0.66)^{(20-8)}

                = 125970 x 0.0001785794 x 0.00683168

                = 0.1536830

                ≈ 0.153 (Round off to the nearest thousandth.)

Hence, the probability of getting exactly 8 hits in his next 20 at-bats is 0.153.

Learn more about Binomial Distribution here:

brainly.com/question/16934457

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
Please help me i need this grave !
Mice21 [21]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

nvm i figured it out just do 7^2 + 8^2

5 0
3 years ago
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