Answer:
E. Deep venous thrombosis
Step-by-step explanation:
According to a different source, these are the options that come with this question:
A. Depression
B. Smoking history
C. Severe nausea on combined oral contraceptives
D. Lactation history
E. Deep venous thrombosis
This woman would be a good candidate for the progestin-only pill because of her deep venous thrombosis, as contraindications to estrogen include a history of thromboembolic disease. Other contraindications include women who are lactating, women over 35 who smoke or women that have experienced severe nausea when using combined pills.
Answer:
3. [6x - 2y=2.
(2 + 6x=y
Step-by-step explanation:
The slope is 4 or you can think of it as 4/1 if that helps. Remember slope intercept form is y=mx+b.
