Answer:
Explanation:
The passing relative methods the individual who meet the five necessities of IRS for example
(I). The individual should be the resident of Canada, US or Mexico or the outsider occupant of US.
(ii). Individual ought not be the passing kid.
(iii). The individual should be the relative of citizen for complete year and have relationship with citizen either by gift or blood.
(iv). The individual ought to have under $4,200 net pay in 2019.
(v). Citizen is supporting higher than half cost of the individual.
Since, the gross salary of Debbie is $18,250 and subsequently she is not the qualifying relative
Answer:
O A
they have a low rate of interest
O c. they allow a longer repayment period
OD.
they have an easier application process
Answer:
$656,000
Explanation:
Calculation to determine what The balance in the right-of-use asset after two years will be
Using this formula
Right-of-use asset after 2 years balance=Value of Asset- (Value of Asset*Used year)/Estimated Life
Let plug in the formula
Right-of-use asset after 2 years balance= $820,000 - ($820,000 / 10) * 2
Right-of-use asset after 2 years balance=$820,000-$164,000
Right-of-use asset after 2 years balance= $656,000
Therefore The balance in the right-of-use asset after two years will be:$656,000
Answer:
The adjustment to net income for the period will be reported as:
Debit Interest expense ($600 - $500) $100
Credit Interest payable $100
<em>(Being interest expense for the period)</em>
Explanation:
Interest payable is the accumulation of the interest expense in the balance sheet overa specific period of time agreed with the creditor. When it becomes payable, the interest payable account is debited while cash is credited.
The interest payable in the Coffee Cup Company's account increased from $500 (credit balance) to $600 credit balance. This means there would have been an additional $100 interest expense recorded during the period in order to increase it to $600.
Answer:
The options for the question is:
A. pre-sale net
B. syndicate group net
C. designated net
D. member takedown
Explanation:
The answer is D. member takedown
The priority accorded to the order by the manager will be treated as member takedown orders, and if there is sufficient interest in the issue, the order would not be filled because of the other orders with higher priority being filled first.
When an order is placed with the syndicate by a member for an "accumulation account" that is being managed by that member, it is strange in that the bonds are not being sold to the general public.
The syndicate member must disclose to the manager when the order is placed; the manager will then disclose any of these orders that have been filled to the other syndicate members when the account is closed; and the manager will fill these orders last- meaning they get priority after pre-sales, group, and designated orders.
