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wolverine [178]
2 years ago
14

A salesperson receives a base salary of $1,200 per month plus a commission of 6 percent on each sale. The following sales were m

ade this month:
Sale 1 $6,500
Sale 2 $10,320
Sale 3 $700
Sale 4 $1,180
Sale 5 $29,000
Calculate this month's total carnings.
Business
1 answer:
Sveta_85 [38]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$4062

Explanation:

base salary of $1,200

+ 6% of each sale

so $1,200 + $390 + $619.20 + $42 + $70.80 + $1,740

=$4062

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The most economical way to purchase large items, such as fumiture, is to buy with
kvv77 [185]
Using cash or debit because it’s much simpler. If using cash you have a confirmed amount to give the person you are buying from
8 0
3 years ago
Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Roun
Dimas [21]

Answer:

a. Futuere Value = $19,245.86

b. Futuere Value = $3,060.86

c. Futuere Value = $0

d-1. Futuere Value = $21,170.44

d-2. Futuere Value = $3,213.90

d-3. Futuere Value = $0

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged. They are therefore sorted before answering the question as follows:

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to the nearest cent.

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Explanation of the answer is now provided as follows:

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Ordinary Annuity given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) ................................. (1)

Where,

FV = Future value of the amount =?

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721

FV = $19,245.855390489

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = 19,245.86

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125

FV = $3,060.860765625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * (0 / 0)

FV = $200 * 0

FV = $0

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Annuity Due is given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) * (1 + r) ................................. (2)

Where,

FV = Future value

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

d-1. Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10) * (1 + 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721 * 1.10

FV = $2,1170.4409295379

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $2,1170.44

d-2. Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05) * (1 + 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125 * 1.05

FV = $3,213.90380390625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,213.90

d-3. Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0) * (1 + 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * (0 / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * 0 * 1

FV = $0

8 0
3 years ago
Managers must be able to determine whether their workers are doing an effective and efficient job, with a minimum of errors and
Katarina [22]

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

This system of performance review is a 360-degree review or feedback process where a given employee receives inputs on her performance (or other criteria such as behaviors, competencies and results achieved) from different employees with varying working relationships and at different levels.  The idea is to ensure that the employee's performance is not partial or biased.  Using this system, the employee who may be a manager will have her performance reviewed by employees below, above, and on the same level with her.

6 0
3 years ago
The Accounts Receivable balance for Lake​, Inc. at December​ 31, 2017​, was $ 20 comma 000. During 2018​, Lake earned revenue of
elena-s [515]

Answer:

The required journals are:

Debit Bad debt expense                                          $10,070

Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts                 $10,070

<em>(To record bad debt for the year)</em>

Explanation:

To understand the effects of the transactions, we need to journalize as follows:

Debit Accounts receivable                                    $454,000

Credit Sales revenue                                             $454,000

<em>(To record sales transaction on account)</em>

Debit Cash                                                             $325,000

Credit Accounts receivable                                  $325,000

<em>(To record collections on account)</em>

Debit Allowance for doubtful accounts                   $5,600

Credit Accounts receivable                                     $5,600

<em>(To record write-off of accounts receivable)</em>

With the above journals, the balance in accounts receivable will be: $20,000 + $454,000 - $325,000 - $5,600 = $143,400. The 5% of $143,400 will be $7,170.

The effect of the write-off was to throw the unadjusted allowance for doubtful account into debit as $2,700 - $5,600 = $2,900. The required bad debt expense will $10,070 ($7,170 + $2,900).

3 0
3 years ago
On january? 1, 2017, dodge company purchases? $90,000, 7% bonds at a price of 86.4 and a maturity date of january? 1, 2027. dodg
andreev551 [17]

We should note that the bond investment account is recorded at cost by the Bondholder or Investor.

The cost or price is calculated as:

Cost = $90,000 * 86.4%

Cost = $90,000 * 0.864 = $77,760

Therefore, the entry to record should be:

<span>debit Held-to-Maturity Investment in Bonds for $77,760 and credit Cash for $77,760</span>

4 0
3 years ago
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