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Ne4ueva [31]
2 years ago
8

A cup of chocolate chips weigh about 6 ounces. A recipe calls for 31 4 cups of chocolate chips which is about how many ounces?

Mathematics
1 answer:
leva [86]2 years ago
7 0
If 1 cup of chocolate chips weighs about 6 ounces

The recipe calls for 3 1/4 cups of chocolate chips.

We need to multiply 6 by 3 which is 18 ounces plus the 1/4 which is 6 times 1/4 = 1.5 ounces

18 + 1.5 = 19.5 ounces of chocolate chip needed
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Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Volume = area of base * height = 1/2 * 6 * 8 * 12


= 288 ft^3 answer

7 0
3 years ago
How much will a train travel in 3/4 of an hour if the average speed is 50 mph?
Aloiza [94]
Since the train travels 50 miles in 1 hour, to find 3/4 of an hour:

3/4 * 50
75/2 miles

Hope this helps!
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
When she turned 18, Kaitlyn purchased 130 shares of stock A for $47 per share; 68 shares of stock B for $32 per share; 71 shares
Vlad [161]
The answer is Stock C
5 0
3 years ago
Suppose you were starting in the office cleaning service. We have spent $315 on equipment. To clean an office, you use four doll
zzz [600]

Answer:

Number of offices to be cleaned to cover the cost of equipment =15

Cost of equipment =$.315 Cost of supplies =$.4 Charge per office =$.25

Number of offices to be cleaned to cover the cost of equipment =x

Then -25x − 4x =315

21x =315

x=315

21=15

Number of offices to be cleaned to cover the cost of equipment =15

4 0
3 years ago
g In American roulette, the wheel has the 38 numbers, 00, 0, 1, 2, ..., 34, 35, and 36, marked on equally spaced slots. If a pla
earnstyle [38]

Answer:

The expected value for the player to play one time is -$0.05.

Step-by-step explanation:

The expected value of a random variable <em>X</em> is given by the formula:

E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(X)

The American roulette wheel has the 38 numbers, {i = 00, 0, 1, 2, ..., 34, 35, and 36}, marked on equally spaced slots.

The probability that the ball stops on any of these 38 numbers is same, i.e.

P (X = i) = \frac{1}{38}.

It is provided that a a player bets $1 on a number.

If the player wins, the player keeps the dollar and receives an additional $35.

And if the player losses, the dollar is lost too.

So, the probability distribution is as follows:

<em>     X </em>: $35      -$1

P (<em>X</em>) :   \frac{1}{38}         \frac{37}{38}  

Compute the expected value of the game as follows:

E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(X)

         =[\$35\times \frac{1}{38}]+[-\$1\times \frac{37}{38}]\\\\=\frac{\$35-\$37}{38}\\\\=-\frac{\$2}{38}\\\\=-\frac{1}{19}\\\\=-0.052632\\\\\approx -\$0.05

Thus, the expected value for the player to play one time is -$0.05.

7 0
3 years ago
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