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Morgarella [4.7K]
2 years ago
5

Where can u buy a ruler that is 3 feet long

Mathematics
2 answers:
DerKrebs [107]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A yard sale.

Step-by-step explanation:

lol

Leto [7]2 years ago
4 0

What is this question really about? Could you perhaps dive a little bit more into detail please? Ty

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I need someone to explain how to solve this please!
Paladinen [302]

(x+3)/2x+5 + (3x-5)/(3x+5)

LCM = ( 2x+5)( 3x+5)

[( x+3)( 3x+5) + ( 3x -5)( 2x+5)]/( 2x+5)( 3x+5)

= (3x^2 + 5x +9 x +15 + 6x^2 + 15x -10x -25)/( 2x+5)( 3x+5)

=( 9 x^2 + 19x -10)/( 2x +5)(3x+5)

A) option

4 0
3 years ago
~~~15 POINTS~~~<br> Please help me with this question.
Step2247 [10]
Divide the actual building's measurements by the replica's measurements.

\frac{400}{20}=20\\\\\frac{320}{16}=20

The measurements of the actual building are divided by 20 not 12.
The crew member's calculation is incorrect.
7 0
3 years ago
I need help i will give brainliest pls and also thanks
jeka57 [31]
B. Y= x+ 48 trust me bro.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Marking brainliest <br><br> Pls help
san4es73 [151]
In my opinion I think it's the third one
8 0
3 years ago
Why does the multiplicative inverse of a number have the same sign as the number?
denis23 [38]
<span>Look at the definition of multiplicative inverse. If two numbers are multiplicative inverses of each other, then by definition, their product will be equal to 1. And 1 is a positive number. If both numbers being multiplied are positive, then the result is positive. And of both numbers being multiplied are negative, then the result is still positive. But if one number is positive and the other is negative, then the result is negative. So if you want a positive result, then both numbers you're multiplying have to have the same sign. And since we want a result of 1 for multiplicative inverses and since 1 is positive, then the numbers being multiplied have to have the same sign.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
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