Are the inequalities x > 3 and 3 < x equivalent?
They both say that x must be larger than 3. No bickering here. So yep, they're equivalent.
Inequalities usually have a lot of solutions—in fact, infinitely many. Think about the inequality x > 3. This inequality states that "x must be larger than 3." Any number bigger than 3 is a solution to this inequality. That includes 3.001, 3.0001, 4, 5, 2 million, and every other number bigger than 3. We don't have time at the moment to name them all,
Answer:
C
Step-by-step explanation:
original formula is: y - y1 = m (x - x1) ordinates= (x1, y1)
insert the a corresponding x and y coordinate:
y + 3 = -2 (x + 9)
Don't forget to change the signs depending on whether their positive or negative:
(3, -9) since 3 is positive but there is a minus in the formula it would be -3
since -9 is negative and in the equation there's a minus sign you would change it to positive. (negative times a negative equals a positive)
Answer:
q = 2/3p - 3
Step by step:
2q+2p = 1+5q
2q - 5q = -2p + 1
-3q = -2p + 1
q = 2/3p - 3
Step-by-step explanation:
Total songs = 193
Probability of pop song = 39/193 = 0.202
For whatever reason, Brainly questions are often missing the first character. Here, we assume it is A, so that the intended statement is ABCD~EFGH.
FG = BC*(EH)/AD = 15*60/45 = 20 . . . . inches
