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blsea [12.9K]
2 years ago
15

A car is traveling at a rate of 120 kilometers per hour. What is the cars rate in miles per hour? How many miles will the car tr

avel in 2 hours? In your computations assume that 1 mile is equal to 1.6 kilometers
Mathematics
1 answer:
Ymorist [56]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

150 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

speed = 120 km per hour

1 mile = 1.6 km

speed = 120 km per hr

divide 120 with 1.6 to get in miles=120/1.6

= 75 miles per hour

speed = 75 miles per hour

So, in 1 hr, it can travel 75 miles

the distance traveled by car in 2 hours = 75 * 2 = 150

Result : Speed = 75 miles per hour , distance = 150 miles

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kolezko [41]

Answer:

parallel

Step-by-step explanation:

they have the same slope, but different y intercepts

8 0
2 years ago
The height h(n) of a bouncing ball is an exponential function of the number n of bounces.
Digiron [165]

Answer:

The height of a bouncing ball is defined by h(n) = 6\cdot \left(\frac{4}{6} \right)^{n-1}.

Step-by-step explanation:

According to this statement, we need to derive the expression of the height of a bouncing ball, that is, a function of the number of bounces. The exponential expression of the bouncing ball is of the form:

h = h_{o}\cdot r^{n-1}, n \in \mathbb{N}, 0 < r < 1 (1)

Where:

h_{o} - Height reached by the ball on the first bounce, measured in feet.

r - Decrease rate, no unit.

n - Number of bounces, no unit.

h - Height reached by the ball on the n-th bounce, measured in feet.

The decrease rate is the ratio between heights of two consecutive bounces, that is:

r = \frac{h_{1}}{h_{o}} (2)

Where h_{1} is the height reached by the ball on the second bounce, measured in feet.

If we know that h_{o} = 6\,ft and h_{1} = 4\,ft, then the expression for the height of the bouncing ball is:

h(n) = 6\cdot \left(\frac{4}{6} \right)^{n-1}

The height of a bouncing ball is defined by h(n) = 6\cdot \left(\frac{4}{6} \right)^{n-1}.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I buy a shirt for $50. It was marked down 30%. What was the original price?
natta225 [31]

Answer:

70dollers right? im sorry if im wrong i tried :) hope this helpss!

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
y=c1e^x+c2e^−x is a two-parameter family of solutions of the second order differential equation y′′−y=0. Find a solution of the
vagabundo [1.1K]

The general form of a solution of the differential equation is already provided for us:

y(x) = c_1 \textrm{e}^x + c_2\textrm{e}^{-x},

where c_1, c_2 \in \mathbb{R}. We now want to find a solution y such that y(-1)=3 and y'(-1)=-3. Therefore, all we need to do is find the constants c_1 and c_2 that satisfy the initial conditions. For the first condition, we have:y(-1)=3 \iff c_1 \textrm{e}^{-1} + c_2 \textrm{e}^{-(-1)} = 3 \iff c_1\textrm{e}^{-1} + c_2\textrm{e} = 3.

For the second condition, we need to find the derivative y' first. In this case, we have:

y'(x) = \left(c_1\textrm{e}^x + c_2\textrm{e}^{-x}\right)' = c_1\textrm{e}^x - c_2\textrm{e}^{-x}.

Therefore:

y'(-1) = -3 \iff c_1\textrm{e}^{-1} - c_2\textrm{e}^{-(-1)} = -3 \iff c_1\textrm{e}^{-1} - c_2\textrm{e} = -3.

This means that we must solve the following system of equations:

\begin{cases}c_1\textrm{e}^{-1} + c_2\textrm{e} = 3 \\ c_1\textrm{e}^{-1} - c_2\textrm{e} = -3\end{cases}.

If we add the equations above, we get:

\left(c_1\textrm{e}^{-1} + c_2\textrm{e}\right) + \left(c_1\textrm{e}^{-1} - c_2\textrm{e}  \right) = 3-3 \iff 2c_1\textrm{e}^{-1} = 0 \iff c_1 = 0.

If we now substitute c_1 = 0 into either of the equations in the system, we get:

c_2 \textrm{e} = 3 \iff c_2 = \dfrac{3}{\textrm{e}} = 3\textrm{e}^{-1.}

This means that the solution obeying the initial conditions is:

\boxed{y(x) = 3\textrm{e}^{-1} \times \textrm{e}^{-x} = 3\textrm{e}^{-x-1}}.

Indeed, we can see that:

y(-1) = 3\textrm{e}^{-(-1) -1} = 3\textrm{e}^{1-1} = 3\textrm{e}^0 = 3

y'(x) =-3\textrm{e}^{-x-1} \implies y'(-1) = -3\textrm{e}^{-(-1)-1} = -3\textrm{e}^{1-1} = -3\textrm{e}^0 = -3,

which do correspond to the desired initial conditions.

3 0
3 years ago
PLSSS HELPPPP MEEEEEE I NEED HELP HOENSTLYY I DONT UNDETRSTAND THIS
olasank [31]

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey so ok, Ill explain this the best I can.

So you see the 10/2 (10/2 is the fraction just you cant type it in that way)

So 10/2 is litterally 10÷2, which is 5 just imagine that the line inbetween is a division symbol, and it goes from top to bottom, so for example 5/2 would be 5÷2... NOT 2÷5

With this said, to simplify 10/2, just divide the numerator, (Top) by the denominator (bottom) so --> 10÷2 = 5,

so Wednesday would equal 5 (and 5 is the same as 5/1 because 5÷1=5)

Do the same for Thursday 18÷3 = 6

So Thursday would equal 6 (and 6 is the same as 6/1 because 6÷1=6)

and since 6 > 5, (aka 6/1 > 5/1) She ran a longer distance per mile on Thursday, therefore she ran faster on Thursday.

Hopefully I answered your question in the right way.

8 0
3 years ago
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