Answer:
I believe the answer is 24
The answer is 95.4525 percent because you would use an equation
n!/(r!(n-r)! x (P)^x * (1-P)^(n-x)
Plug in the number correspondingly
N= 10
R= 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 (You will have to do each individual, if you have a Ti-nspire calculator however there is a built program called binomialcdf.
P= .37
x = r
After plugging this is the achieved answer is 95.4525
(.0578 + .1529 + .2394 + .2461 + .1734 + .0849) x 100
additive may be a little off due to rounding.
But what are we meant to unscramble?
By the way, if you haven’t noticed this is maths not english
Answer:
where?????????????????????:/
Answer: See each part below.
1) A, B, and C are the coefficients in order when it equals 0. Move over the 4 and you have 5, 9, -4 or Choice B.
3) If you graph the equation, it will be above the x-axis. Therefore, it has no roots. Choice D
4) Choice A is correct. Use the coefficients: A = 4, B = 3, C = -10. Simply plug those into the quadratic equation and you will get -2 and 1.25.
