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9966 [12]
3 years ago
9

Coefficient of x^2 in expansion of the binomial theorem (2x-1)^4 show your work

Mathematics
1 answer:
tekilochka [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

If you use Pascal's triangle, which I did, you will look at the 5th row of the triangle which contains the numbers 1, 4, 6, 4, 1

If we expand using a = 2x and b = -1, then the expansion looks like this:

1(2x)^4(-1)^0+4(2x)^3(-1)^1+6(2x)^2(-1)^2+4(2x)^1(-1)^3+1(2x)^0(-1)^4

If you simplify all that down by multiplying, you'll get

16x^4-32x^3+24x^2-8x+1

If you don't know how to use Pascal's triangle, you need to learn.  It's so very cool!

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Please take your time.​
Liula [17]

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

12+8 = 20

20/5 = 4

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need help please I don’t understand
Evgen [1.6K]
You don’t need to do the math, think logically.

35% is almost 33%.

1/3 (33%) of 64,000 is 21,000.

The closest choice is H. 22,400.
3 0
3 years ago
3x-13=74 solve for x
never [62]

Answer:

x=29

Step-by-step explanation:

3x-13=74

We want to solve for x, so we need to isolate it.

The first step is to add 13 to each side.

3x-13+13=74+13

3x = 87

Then we divide by 3 on each side

3x/3 = 87/3

x= 29

7 0
3 years ago
What is 9% of 42 pls help fast!
joja [24]

Answer:

3.78

Step-by-step explanation:

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 9 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with $x$.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that $100\%=9$.

Step 4: In the same vein, $x\%=42$.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

$100\%=9(1)$.

$x\%=42(2)$.

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS

(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

$\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{9}{42}$

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

$\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{9}$

$\Rightarrow x=466.67\%$

Therefore, $42$ is $466.67\%$ of $9$.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The minute hand on a clock is 9 centimeters long and travels through an arc of 252 degrees every 42 minutes. To the nearest tent
kkurt [141]

Answer:

39.6 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Applying

s = 2πrθ/360................ Equation 1

Where s = length of an arc or distance traveled by the minutes hand of the clock during the 42 munites, r = length of the minutes hand of the clock, θ = Angle traveled by the minute hand of the clock for every 42 minutes

From the question,

Given: r = 9 cm, θ = 252°

Constant: π = 22/7 = 3.14

Substitute these values into equation 1

s = (2×3.14×9×252)/360

s = 39.564

s = 39.6 cm

4 0
3 years ago
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