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Lostsunrise [7]
2 years ago
14

The difference of two numbers is 8. What two numbers will minimize the product? The numbers are ___ and ____.

Mathematics
2 answers:
baherus [9]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

-4 and 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Have a good day.

Dennis_Churaev [7]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

answer is -4 and 4 ):(

Step-by-step explanation:

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An airplane is traveling at a speed of 240 miles/hour with a bearing of 110°. The wind velocity is 56 miles/hour at a bearing of
vodka [1.7K]

Answer:

Actual speed = 288 miles per hour

Actual direction angle = 116.38^\circ

Step-by-step explanation:

"Bearing" is the relative position of an object outside the plane compared to the position of the plane.  

Heading the the direction the nose of the plane is pointing.  

Course is the direction that pilot wants the plane to go.  

Wind direction is always the direction the wind is blowing from.  

The airplane is traveling at a speed of 240 miles/hour with a bearing of 110°.  

If the plane is traveling with a bearing of 110° and the wind is blown at a bearing of 325°.  

 325^{\circ}- 110^{\circ} =225^{\circ}

215^{\circ}- 180^{\circ} =35^{\circ}

The Ground speed will be in excess of the airspeed and true direction will be south if the indicated heading.  

The tailwind component is:

56 cos (35^\circ)

And the cross wind component is:

56 sin (35^\circ)  


And that is,

C^2 = (286)^2 + (32)^2


c = 288

So the actual speed of the plane is 288 miles per hour.

The deviation in the direction is:

Let the direction angle be 'x'.

x = tan ^{-1}\left ( \frac{32}{286} \right )=6.38^\circ

So the actual direction angle is 110^\circ+ 6.38^\circ=116.38^\circ.

5 0
3 years ago
Please help i give brainlist
Anastasy [175]
Hello There!

The ratio is 1:3 therefore the answer is 1/3

Hope This Helps You!
Good Luck :) 

- Hannah ❤
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What number between 35 and 40 has only one and itself as factors?
Sonbull [250]

Answer:

37

Step-by-step explanation:

You're looking for a prime number.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Help me please this is very important to me for rbainlist and explain
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of getting one even and one odd is the sum of probability of getting even and of getting odd and even. Since there are 3 even or odd on each die out of six numbers you have

P(EO)(3/6)(3/6)=1/4 and P(OE)=(3/6)(3/6)=1/4 so 1/4+1/4= 1/2

or you can find the probability of getting two odds or two evens and subtract that from 1

P(EE)=(3/6)(3/6)=1/4, P(OO)=(3/6)(3/6)=1/4

P(EO)=1-1/4-1/4=1/2

6 0
3 years ago
Can some people answer this for Me please
Alik [6]
Equal to 1, and you'll just add a 4 and that will make it 4/4 and like both are the same numbers it will become 1 whole

7 0
3 years ago
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