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Vladimir79 [104]
2 years ago
14

What's the difference between arithmetic and geometrical sequence with examples please.​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Vikki [24]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

An arithmetic sequence has a constant difference between each consecutive pair of terms. This is similar to the linear functions that have the form y=mx+b. A geometric sequence has a constant ratio between each pair of consecutive terms. This would create the effect of a constant multiplier.

-- Credit -- libretexts

<em>Hope this helps! Please let me know if you need more help or think my answer is incorrect. Brainliest would be MUCH appreciated. Have a wonderful day!</em>

KIM [24]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

An arithmetic sequence is a sequence with the difference between two consecutive terms constant. The difference is called the common difference. A geometric sequence is a sequence with the ratio between two consecutive terms constant. This ratio is called the common ratio.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer: legislative risk

Step-by-step explanation:

Legislative risk refers to a form of risk whereby there's likelihood of a business making a loss on an investment due to governmental action.

Legislative risk implies an amendment or an abolition of laws which has a direct impact on investments. Regarding the question, the introduction of the new tax laws and fiscal policies is a legislative risk.

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Leto [7]

Answer:

(2A /h) - b1 = b2

Step-by-step explanation:

A = 1/2 h ( b1 + b2)

Multiply each side by 2

2A = 2*1/2 h ( b1 + b2)

2A =  h ( b1 + b2)

Divide each side by h

2A/h= h/h ( b1 + b2)

2A/h=  b1 + b2

Subtract b1 from each side

2A /h - b1 = b2

3 0
3 years ago
Does there exist a di↵erentiable function g : [0, 1] R such that g'(x) = f(x) for all x 2 [0, 1]? Justify your answer
agasfer [191]

Answer:

No; Because g'(0) ≠ g'(1), i.e. 0≠2, then this function is not differentiable for g:[0,1]→R

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming:  the function is f(x)=x^{2} in [0,1]

And rewriting it for the sake of clarity:

Does there exist a differentiable function g : [0, 1] →R such that g'(x) = f(x) for all g(x)=x² ∈ [0, 1]? Justify your answer

1) A function is considered to be differentiable if, and only if  both derivatives (right and left ones) do exist and have the same value. In this case, for the Domain [0,1]:

g'(0)=g'(1)

2) Examining it, the Domain for this set is smaller than the Real Set, since it is [0,1]

The limit to the left

g(x)=x^{2}\\g'(x)=2x\\ g'(0)=2(0) \Rightarrow g'(0)=0

g(x)=x^{2}\\g'(x)=2x\\ g'(1)=2(1) \Rightarrow g'(1)=2

g'(x)=f(x) then g'(0)=f(0) and g'(1)=f(1)

3) Since g'(0) ≠ g'(1), i.e. 0≠2, then this function is not differentiable for g:[0,1]→R

Because this is the same as to calculate the limit from the left and right side, of g(x).

f'(c)=\lim_{x\rightarrow c}\left [\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a} \right ]\\\\g'(0)=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\left [\frac{g(b)-g(a)}{b-a} \right ]\\\\g'(1)=\lim_{x\rightarrow 1}\left [\frac{g(b)-g(a)}{b-a} \right ]

This is what the Bilateral Theorem says:

\lim_{x\rightarrow c^{-}}f(x)=L\Leftrightarrow \lim_{x\rightarrow c^{+}}f(x)=L\:and\:\lim_{x\rightarrow c^{-}}f(x)=L

4 0
4 years ago
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