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ira [324]
3 years ago
13

Freeee pointssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssss

Mathematics
2 answers:
kolezko [41]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

....

Step-by-step explanation:

lukranit [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

….

You might be interested in
3. Write three ratios equal to 4/36
tia_tia [17]

{\Huge{\boxed{\mathbb{QUESTION}}}

Write three ratios equal to \frac{4}{36}

{\huge{\boxed{\mathbb{EXPLANATION\:WITH\:REASONING\;}}}

This ratio can be represented as 4:36

_______________________________

{\Huge{\boxed{\mathbb{THE\:RATIOS}}}

_______________________________

  • 1:9
  • 2:18
  • 3:27

_______________________________

{\huge{\boxed{\mathbb{TERMS}}}

Equivalent/Equal ratios<em> - Definition of Equivalent Ratio A ratio can be represented as a fraction. The concept of an equivalent ratio is similar to the concept of equivalent fractions. A ratio that we get either by multiplying or dividing by the same number, other than zero, to the antecedent and the consequent of a ratio is called an equivalent ratio.</em>

6 0
3 years ago
What is the value of the expression below?<br> 32^3/5<br> O A. 6/5<br> B. 6<br> O c. 96/5<br> O D. 8
Hoochie [10]

Answer:

D. 8

Step-by-step explanation:

32^(3/5) is the same as \sqrt[5]{32}^3.

 \sqrt[5]{32} = 2 because 2^5=32

2^3 = 8

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A data set with a mean of 34 and a standard deviation of 2.5 is normally distributed
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

a) z= \frac{34-34}{2.5}= 0

z= \frac{39-34}{2.5}= 2

And we want the probability from 0 to two deviations above the mean and we got 95/2 = 47.5 %

b) P(X

z= \frac{31.5-34}{2.5}= -1

So one deviation below the mean we have: (100-68)/2 = 16%

c) z= \frac{29-34}{2.5}= -2

z= \frac{36.5-34}{2.5}= 1

For this case below 2 deviation from the mean we have 2.5% and above 1 deviation from the mean we got 16% and then the percentage between -2 and 1 deviation above the mean we got: (100-16-2.5)% = 81.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we have a random variable with the following parameters:

X \sim N(\mu = 34, \sigma=2.5)

From the empirical rule we know that within one deviation from the mean we have 68% of the values, within two deviations we have 95% and within 3 deviations we have 99.7% of the data.

We want to find the following probability:

P(34 < X

We can find the number of deviation from the mean with the z score formula:

z= \frac{X -\mu}{\sigma}

And replacing we got

z= \frac{34-34}{2.5}= 0

z= \frac{39-34}{2.5}= 2

And we want the probability from 0 to two deviations above the mean and we got 95/2 = 47.5 %

For the second case:

P(X

z= \frac{31.5-34}{2.5}= -1

So one deviation below the mean we have: (100-68)/2 = 16%

For the third case:

P(29 < X

And replacing we got:

z= \frac{29-34}{2.5}= -2

z= \frac{36.5-34}{2.5}= 1

For this case below 2 deviation from the mean we have 2.5% and above 1 deviation from the mean we got 16% and then the percentage between -2 and 1 deviation above the mean we got: (100-16-2.5)% = 81.5%

7 0
3 years ago
If $3,000,000 is invested at 6% interest compounded continuously, how much
g100num [7]

Answer:

  $24,498,509.74

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for the value as a function of time is ...

  V(t) = P·e^(rt)

Filling in the numbers and doing the arithmetic, we have ...

  V(35) = 3,000,000·e^(0.06·35) ≈ 24,498,509.74

Compounded continuously for 35 years, the investment will be worth $24,498,509.74.

3 0
3 years ago
14. Determine if the statement is true or false.
Effectus [21]
It depends if x is positive or negative and the same as in y
7 0
3 years ago
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