From the information given, each batch of cookies requires 1/6 of a bag of flour.
So how many batches can be gotten from 5/6 of the bag of flour?
We form an equation
1batch = 1/6
x batches = 5/6
Where x is the number of batches from 5/6 bag of flour.
Cross multiplying this equation we get:
x * 1/6 = 1 * 5/6
simplify it:
x * 0.16 = 1 * 0.83
x = 1 * 0.83 / 0.16
x = 0.83 / 0.16
x = 5.2
Therefore factory made approximately 5 batches of cookies yesterday.
Answer:
2x^2(x^3+3x+8)
Step-by-step explanation:
Factor out the gcf which in this case is -2x^2 because that's the greatest factor all of the terms have in common this results in -2x^2(x^3+3x+8)
Btw the ^ represents the exponent
Answer: 130 shark cookies.
Step-by-step explanation: If you divided 170 clown fidh cookies by 85 clown fish cookies you get 2. So same as 85 times 2. Then do the same with the shark cookies. 65 times 2, that equals 130.
Answer:
the cost of the women's haircut is $15 and to shampoo the woman's hair is $5
and the cost of the mens hair cut is $7 and to shampoo the mens hair is $2
15+5=$20 is how much it cost for the women.
7+2=$9 is how much it cost for the men.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: the probability that fewer than 100 in a random sample of 818 men are bald is 0.9830
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that;
p = 10% = 0.1
so let q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.1 = 0.9
n = 818
μ = np = 818 × 0.1 = 81.8
α = √(npq) = √( 818 × 0.1 × 0.9 ) = √73.62 = 8.58
Now to find P( x < 100)
we say;
Z = (X-μ / α) = ((100-81.8) / 8.58) = 18.2 / 8.58 = 2.12
P(x<100) = P(z < 2.12)
from z-score table
P(z < 2.12) = 0.9830
Therefore the probability that fewer than 100 in a random sample of 818 men are bald is 0.9830
