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castortr0y [4]
2 years ago
13

To convert 132 milligrams to grams, you can set up the proportion x/132 mg = 1,000/ 1 g

Mathematics
2 answers:
marin [14]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

FALSE

Step-by-step explanation: You can convert 132 milligrams by using the KHDUDCM(King Henry Died Unusually Drinking Chocolate Milk) And you will have to add three zeros to 132.  (I might be incorrect)

Licemer1 [7]2 years ago
5 0
The answer is.. False!

Hope this helps!
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Step-by-step explanation:

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s344n2d4d5 [400]

I've answered your other question as well.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the identity is true whether the angle x is measured in degrees, radians, gradians (indeed, anything else you care to concoct), I’ll omit the ‘degrees’ sign.

Using the binomial theorem, (a+b)3=a3+3a2b+3ab2+b3

⇒a3+b3=(a+b)3−3a2b−3ab2=(a+b)3−3(a+b)ab

Substituting a=sin2(x) and b=cos2(x), we have:

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Using the trigonometric identity cos2(x)+sin2(x)=1, your expression simplifies to:

sin6(x)+cos6(x)=1−3sin2(x)cos2(x)

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Meaning the expression can be rewritten as:

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3 years ago
How do you solve the questions for the probability
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Aliun [14]

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andrey2020 [161]

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