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Ugo [173]
2 years ago
13

There are 12 Snickers bars and 7 Hershey bars in a bag. The probability of drawing a Snickers bar first, not replacing it, then

drawing a Hershey bar is approximately 24.6%.
Answer Choices:
True
False
Mathematics
2 answers:
sergeinik [125]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

It is True

Step-by-step explanation:

there is 19 candy bars total and u drawing a snickers bar first is 12/19 then you draw a hersey bar the probability would be 7/18

postnew [5]2 years ago
5 0
It is true!!! It would be approximately 24.6%
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A book sold 35,100 copies in its first month of release. Suppose this represents 9.2% of the number of copies sold to date. How
inessss [21]

Answer:

Total number of copies sold till date are 381522.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is given in the question the book sold 35100 copies in its first month of release and this number is 9.2% of the number of copies sold till date.

To find is how many copies have been sold.

Let the total number of copies sold be = A

Therefore 9.2% × A = 35100

\frac{9.2}{100}A=35100

A=\frac{35100\times 100}{9.2}

A = 381521.74 ≅381522 copies

3 0
3 years ago
A type of probability distribution that shows the probability of x successes in n trials, where the probability of success remai
soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer: Binomial distribution

Step-by-step explanation:

The binomial appropriation is a likelihood circulation that sums up the probability that a worth will take one of two free qualities under a given arrangement of boundaries or suspicions. The hidden suspicions of the binomial dispersion are that there is just a single result for every preliminary, that every preliminary has a similar likelihood of achievement, and that every preliminary is totally unrelated, or autonomous of one another.

4 0
3 years ago
Find the number C(10,6)
EastWind [94]

Answer:

210.

Step-by-step explanation:

Combination formula is

nCr = \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

Then, we have that n = 10 and r=6:

C(10,6) = \frac{10!}{6!(10-6)!}

C(10,6) = \frac{10!}{6!4!}

To simplify calculus, we are going to use that n! = (n-1)!n = (n-2)!(n-1)n and so on.

C(10,6) = \frac{6!*7*8*9*10}{6!4!}

C(10,6) = \frac{7*8*9*10}{4!}

C(10,6) = \frac{5040}{4*3*2*1}

C(10,6) = \frac{5040}{24}

C(10,6) = 210.

5 0
3 years ago
Can someone please help me?
Oliga [24]
1/36 because you have 36 different possibilities when rolling it twice and getting and a 4 then a 6 is only 1 possibility out of the 36
1/4 because there is 3/6 chance on one roll and second roll
We said with 2 rolls there is 36 possibility (6x6)
So 3x3=9 which the amount of possibility to get a even number
9/36 simplify is 1/4 (divided by 9 the top and bottom)
Hope this helps!
Hahah my insta is ___genan___
6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Is the following shape a square? How do you know?
Troyanec [42]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

it is a rectangle. each opposite sides ARE parallel but not every side is equal like a square so B

8 0
3 years ago
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