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kari74 [83]
2 years ago
13

Why do we "call it a day" when it's the end of the day/ night time?

Physics
2 answers:
shtirl [24]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

<em>Hello, I'm here to help :D</em>

The Explanation:

<em>The original phrase was call it half a day, first recorded in 1838, which reffered to </em><em>leaving one's place of employment before the work day was over.</em>

<em></em>

<em>The first recorded use of call it a day was in 1919, and of call it a night in 1938</em>

<em />

<em>Bye! - Lilo</em>

Alexxx [7]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

We call it “a day”, beucase the day is over.

You might be interested in
A projectile of mass 2.0 kg is fired in the air at an angle of 40.0 ° to the horizon at a speed of 50.0 m/s. At the highest poin
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

a) The fragment speeds of 0.3 kg is 33.3 m / s on the y axis

                                         0.7 kg is 109.4 ms on the x axis

b)  Y = 109.3 m

Explanation:

This is a moment and projectile launch exercise.

a) Let's start by finding the initial velocity of the projectile

       sin 40 = voy / v₀

       v_{oy} = v₀ sin 40

       v_{oy} = 50.0 sin40

       v_{oy} = 32.14 m / s

       cos 40 = v₀ₓ / V₀

       v₀ₓ = v₀ cos 40

       v₀ₓ = 50.0 cos 40

       v₀ₓ = 38.3 m / s

Let us define the system as the projectile formed t all fragments, for this system the moment is conserved in each axis

Let's write the amounts

Initial mass of the projectile M = 2.0 kg

Fragment mass 1 m₁ = 1.0 kg and its velocity is vₓ = 0 and v_{y} = -10.0 m / s

Fragment mass 2 m₂ = 0.7 kg moves in the x direction

Fragment mass 3 m₃ = 0.3 kg moves up (y axis)

Moment before the break

X axis

     p₀ₓ = m v₀ₓ

Y Axis y

    p_{oy} = 0

After the break

X axis

   p_{fx} = m₂ v₂

Axis y

     p_{fy} = m₁ v₁ + m₃ v₃

Let's write the conservation of the moment and calculate

Y Axis  

     0 = m₁ v₁ + m₃ v₃

Let's clear the speed of fragment 3

     v₃ = - m₁ v₁ / m₃

     v₃ = - (-10) 1 / 0.3

     v₃ = 33.3 m / s

X axis

     M v₀ₓ = m₂ v₂

     v₂ = v₀ₓ M / m₂

     v₂ = 38.3  2 / 0.7

     v₂ = 109.4 m / s

The fragment speeds of 0.3 kg is 33.3 m / s on the y axis

                                         0.7 kg is 109.4 ms on the x axis

b) The speed of the fragment is 33.3 m / s and has a starting height of where the fragmentation occurred, let's calculate with kinematics

       v_{fy}² = v_{oy}² - 2 gy

       0 =  v_{oy}²-2gy

       y =  v_{oy}² / 2g

       y = 32.14² / 2 9.8

       y = 52.7 m

This is the height where the break occurs, which is the initial height for body movement of 0.3 kg

      v_{f}² =  v_{y}² - 2 g y₂

      0 =  v_{y}² - 2 g y₂

     y₂ =  v_{y}² / 2g

     y₂ = 33.3²/2 9.8

     y₂ = 56.58 m

Total body height is

      Y = y + y₂

      Y = 52.7 + 56.58

     Y = 109.3 m

8 0
2 years ago
What kind of waves are responsible for all the damage an earthquake causes?
Liula [17]
Seismic waves are waves generated by Earthquakes. 
6 0
3 years ago
2. An 873 kg dragster accelerates at a rate of 44.6 m/s during a race.
Ira Lisetskai [31]

Answer:

<h3>38,673.9N</h3>

Explanation:

According to newton's second law:

Force = mass * acceleration

Given

Mass = 873kg

acceleration = 44.66m/s²

Magnitude of the force is expressed as;

F = ma

F = 873 * 44.6

F = 38,673.9N

<em>Hence the magnitude of the net force exerted on the dragster during this time is 38,673.9N</em>

8 0
2 years ago
The ball has 7.35 joules of potential energy at position B. At position A, all of the energy changes to kinetic energy. The velo
Lina20 [59]
I assume that the ball is stationary (v=0) at point B, so its total energy is just potential energy, and it is equal to 7.35 J. 
At point A, all this energy has converted into kinetic energy, which is:
K= \frac{1}{2}mv^2
And since K=7.35 J, we can find the velocity, v:
v= \sqrt{ \frac{2K}{m} }= \sqrt{ \frac{2 \cdot 7.35 J}{1.5 kg} }=3.1 m/s
3 0
3 years ago
A uniform disk, a thin hoop, and a uniform sphere, all with the same mass and same outer radius, are each free to rotate about a
olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer:

4 hoop, disk, sphere

Explanation:

Because

We are given data that

Hoop, disk, sphere have Same mass and radius

So let

And Initial angular velocity, = 0

The Force on each be F

And Time = t

Also let

Radius of each = r

So let's find the inertia shall we!!

I1 = m r² /2

= 0.5 mr² the his is for dis

I2 = m r² for hoop

And

Moment of inertia of sphere wiil be

I3 = (2/5) mr²

= 0.4 mr²

So

ωf = ωi + α t

= 0 + ( τ / I ) t

= ( F r / I ) t

So we can see that

ωf is inversely proportional to moment of inertia.

And so we take the

Order of I ( least to greatest ) :

I3 (sphere) , I1 (disk) , I2 (hoop) , ,

Order of ωf: ( least to greatest)

That of omega xf is the reverse of inertial so

hoop, disk, sphere

Option - 4

5 0
3 years ago
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