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Alborosie
2 years ago
5

The circumference of the base of a cone is 24 inches. The slant height of the cone is 20 inches.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Tanzania [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer: B. 384 square inches

Step-by-step explanation: Right on Edge 2022

loris [4]2 years ago
6 0

The surface area of a cone with circumference base of 24π inches and slant height of 20 inches is 384π inches² in terms of π.

<h3>Surface area of a cone</h3>

surface area = πr(r + l)

where

  • r = radius
  • l = slant height

Therefore,

l = 20 inches

24π = 2πr

r = 12

Therefore,

surface area  = π(12)(12 + 20)

surface area = 12π(12 + 20)

surface area = 12π × 32

surface area = 384π inches²

learn more on surface area here: brainly.com/question/2847956

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likoan [24]
$6.79 - $3.95 = $2.84. Since you’re rounding to the nearest half dollar, you’d found to $3. $2.84 is closer to $3 than $2.50

$3 - $2.84 = $.16
$2.84 - $2.5 = $.34
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3 years ago
How many thirds are equal to 2/6? please explain using an equation.​
Pachacha [2.7K]

Answer:

<u><em>How many thirds are equal to 2/6?</em></u>

1/3 = 1/3

2/6 = 1/3

3/9 = 1/3

4/12 = 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope that this answer helps you to understand your question more thoroughly. If you have any other questions, please put them below.  

Have a great rest of your day/night!

3 0
3 years ago
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Find the original price of a pair of shoes if the sale price is $168 after a 20% discount.
Anna11 [10]

Answer:

A. 210

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
Consider a roulette wheel consisting of 38 numbers 1 through 36, 0, and double 0. If Smith always bets that the outcome will be
Step2247 [10]

Answer:

The probability that  Smith will lose his first 5 bets is 0.15

The probability that  his first win will occur on his fourth bet is 0.1012

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the provided information.

A roulette wheel consisting of 38 numbers 1 through 36, 0, and double 0. Smith always bets that the outcome will be one of the numbers 1 through 12,

It is given that Smith always bets on the numbers 1 through 12.

There are 12 numbers from 1 to 12.

Thus, the probability of success (winning) is=  \frac{12}{38}

The probability of not success (loses) is=  1-\frac{12}{38}=\frac{26}{38}

Part (A) Smith will lose his first 5 bets.

The probability  that Smith loses his first 5 bets is,

\frac{26}{38}\times\frac{26}{38}\times\frac{26}{38}\times\frac{26}{38}\times\frac{26}{38}=(\frac{26}{38})^5\approx0.15

Hence, the probability that  Smith will lose his first 5 bets is 0.15

Part (B)  His first win will occur on his fourth bet?

Smith’s first win occurring on the fourth bet means that he loses the first 3 bets and wins on the fourth bet. That is,

\frac{26}{38}\times\frac{26}{38}\times\frac{26}{38}\times\frac{12}{38}=(\frac{26}{38})^3\times\frac{12}{38}\approx0.1012

Hence, the probability that  his first win will occur on his fourth bet is 0.1012

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the number line graphs shows the soulution set of |x-2| &gt;3?​
Andrei [34K]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 2 solutions with absolute value equations

x-2 >3       or    x-2 <-3

Add 2 to each side

x-2+2>3+2   or     x-2+2 <-3+2

x>5               or       x <-1

x< -1  or x>5

This looks like boat oars

Open circle at -1  and to the left

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4 0
3 years ago
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