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Debora [2.8K]
2 years ago
10

Merle has found that the probability of randomly drawing a bag of green tea out of a box of assorted tea bags is . If Merle draw

s 25 tea bags out of the box, which of the following is the best prediction of the number of tea bags that will be green tea?
Mathematics
1 answer:
ivolga24 [154]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

its dont make since bro what is the fraction?

Step-by-step explanation

divide

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C=5/9(F−32)
butalik [34]

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
two swimmers swam lobstering practice together the swim 175 laps swmmier b swam 25 more than twice as many as swimmer a how many
qwelly [4]

Answer:

swimmer b swims 100 yards. approximately how many more feet did swimmer a swim than swimmer b? 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,
rjkz [21]

Answer:

a)  0.2725

b)  0.7275

c)  0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution probability problem. The formula is:

P(x)=\frac{n!}{(n-x)!x!}p^{x}q^{n-x}

Where

n is the number of trials [here we are taking 8 person, so n = 8]

x is what we are looking for [in the problem]

p is the probability of success [ 15%, so p = 0.15

q is the probability of failure [q = 1-p = 0.85]

Now,

a)

We are looking for "no one" did fling, so x = 0

Let's put into formula and find out the probability:

P(x=0)=\frac{8!}{(8-0)!0!}(0.15)^{0}(0.85)^{8}\\P(x=0)=0.2725

So, the probability that no one has done a one-time fling is 0.2725

b)

Atleast 1 person means P(x ≥ 1).

This can be found by:

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x=0) = 1 - 0.2725 = 0.7275

THus, Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling is 0.7275

c)

No more than 2 people means P (x≤2).

This is essentially

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2)

P ( x = 0 ) is found in part (a), which is 0.2725

P (x = 1 ) and P(x=2) can be found using formula:

P(x=1)=\frac{8!}{(8-1)!1!}(0.15)^{1}(0.85)^{7}\\P(x=1)=0.3847

and

P(x=2)=\frac{8!}{(8-2)!2!}(0.15)^{2}(0.85)^{6}\\P(x=2)=0.2376

Thus,

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376 = 0.8948

8 0
3 years ago
A recipe for one batch of cookies uses 5 cups of flour and 2 teaspoons of vanilla. If i use 6 teaspoons of vanilla how many cups
Amiraneli [1.4K]

Answer:

15 cups

Step-by-step explanation:

5 cups= 2 teaspoons

15 cups=6 teaspoons

the difference between 2 and 6 is times 3

so it would be 5 times 3 which is 15

4 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP FAST
Rzqust [24]

Answer:

a)2 is a factor of 12

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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