Easy question 20 points……..

An investor in Treasury securities expects inflation to be 1.6% in Year 1, 3.05% in Year 2, and 3.85% each year thereafter. Assu

mixer [17]

Answer:

The difference between two securities is 0.89%.

Explanation:

Inflation premium for the next three and five years:

Inflation premium (3) = (1.6% + 3.05% + 3.85%) ÷ 3

= 2.83%

Inflation premium (5) = (1.6% + 3.05% + 3.85% + 3.85% + 3.85%) ÷ 5

= 3.24%

Real risk-free rate = 2.35%

Since default premium and liquidity premium are zero on treasury bonds, we can now solve for the maturity risk premium:

Three-year Treasury securities = Real risk-free rate + Inflation premium (3) + MRP(3)

6.80% = 2.35% + 2.83% + MRP(3)

MRP (3) = 1.62%

Similarly,

5-year Treasury securities = Real risk-free rate + Inflation premium (5) + MRP(5)

8.10% = 2.35% + 3.24% + MRP(3)

MRP (5) = 2.51%

Thus,

MRP5 - MRP3 = 2.51% - 1.62%

= 0.89%

Therefore, the difference between two securities is 0.89%.

4 0

3 years ago

The risk-free rate of return is 2% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 8%. Oklahoma Oilco has a beta of 2.0 and a

solmaris [256]

Answer:

The multiple choices are as follows:

18.6%

14.0%

22.8%

25.0%

The second option is the correct answer,14%

Explanation:

The capital asset pricing asset model formula for computing a firm's cost of equity according to Miller and Modgiliani is given below:

Ke=Rf+Beta*(Mr-Rf)

Rf is the risk free of 2% which is the return expected from zero risk investment such as government treasury bills.

Beta is how risky an investment in a company is compared to similar businesses operating in similar business sector of the company given as 2.0

Mr is the expected return on market portfolio which 8%

Ke=2%+2*(8%-2%)

Ke=2%+2*(6%)

Ke=2%+12%=14%

3 0

3 years ago

Colaw Co. pays all salaried employees on a biweekly basis. Overtime pay, however, is paid in the next biweekly period. Colaw acc

fgiga [73]

Answer:

salaries expense 81,000 debit

salaries payable 81,000 credit

Explanation:

the recurrring salaries for a biwweekly salaries is 270,000

In two weaks assuming five-day work week, there is 10 days.

so we divide to get the expected wages per day the recurring salaries by the amount of days of that period:

270,000 / 10 = 27,000 per day

Then, we multiply by the 3 days from the current period:

27,000 x 3 = 81,000

this will be the accrued expenses for the period

5 0

3 years ago

Both Bond Sam and Bond Dave have 7.3 percent coupons, make semiannual payments, and are priced at par value. Bond Sam has three

Zarrin [17]

Answer:

Sam change: -5.13%

Dave change -18.01%

Explanation:

If interest rate increase by 2%

then the YTM of the bond will be 9.3%

We need eto calcualte the present value of the coupon and maturity of the bond at this new rate:

For the coupon payment we use the formula for ordinary annuity

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

Coupon payment: 1,000 x 7.3% / 2 payment per year: 36.50

time 6 (3 years x 2 payment per year)

YTM seiannual: 0.0465 (9.3% annual /2 = 4.65% semiannual)

$36.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0465)^{-6} }{0.0465} = PV\\$

PV $187.3546

For the maturity we calculate usign the lump sum formula:

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity: $ 1,000.00

time: 6 payment

rate: 0.0465

$\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0465)^{6} } = PV$

PV 761.32

Now, we add both together:

PV coupon $187.3546 + PV maturity $761.3154 = $948.6700

now we calcualte the change in percentage:

948.67/1,000 - 1 = -0.051330026 = -5.13

For Dave we do the same:

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 36.50

time 40

rate 0.0465

$36.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0465)^{-40} }{0.0465} = PV\\$

PV $657.5166

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 1,000.00

time 40.00

rate 0.0465

$\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0465)^{40} } = PV$

PV 162.34

PV c $657.5166

PV m $162.3419

Total $819.8585

Change:

819.86 / 1,000 - 1 = -0.180141521 = -18.01%

6 0

3 years ago

Your neighborhood self-service laundry is for sale and you consider investing in this business. For the business alone and no ot

Oduvanchick [21]

Answer:

The complete present value calcuation is below.

The net present value of this project is: $77,930.58 (assuming a value for the sale of the business equal to the purchase price).

Explanation:

For this problem, the first and basic question is:

Prepare a net present value calculation for this project. What is the net present value of this project?

<h2>Solution</h2>

The net present value is equal to: the present value of the future cash flows less present value of the investements.

1. Present value of the future cash flows:

The discount factor is equal to 1 / [1 + (1 + r)ⁿ]

Where:

r = 5% = 0.05
n = the number of year

Year Cash flow Discount factor Present value

1 $30,000 1/(1 + 0.05) $30,000/1.05 = $28,571.43

2 $30,000 1/(1 + 0.05)² $30,000/(1.05)² = $27,210.88

3 $30,000 1/(1 + 0.05)³ $30,000/(1.05)³ = $25,915.13

4 $30,000 1/(1 + 0.05)⁴ $30,000/(1.05)⁴ = $24,681.07

5 $30,000 1/(1 + 0.05)⁵ $30,000/(1.05)⁵ = $23,505.78

5 $240,000* 1/(1 + 0.05)⁵ $240,000/(1.05)⁵ = $188,046.28

*For the year 5 you must also consider the value of the business, which is unknow. You should have some information about it. Although unrealistic, at this stage we can just assume a value: let's say it is the same purchase price: $240,000. That is what the last line shows:

The discount the value of the value of the business is:

$240,000 / (1.05)⁵ = $188,046.28

The total present value of the future cash flows is the sum of the present values of all the cash flows:

$28,571.43 + $27,210.88 + $25,915.13 + $24,681.07 + $23,505.78 + $188,046.28 = $317,930.58

2. Calculate the net present value:

Net present value =

= Total present value of future cash flows - investment

Net present value = $317,930.58 - $240,000 = $77,930.58

5 0

3 years ago