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allsm [11]
2 years ago
15

What is 0.832 divided by 0.64

Mathematics
1 answer:
vichka [17]2 years ago
7 0
What is 0.832 divided by 0.64?


The answer is 1.3
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Since we know x=6, replace all the x with 6 in the equation and then follow the PEMDAS rule. y= -2(6)^2 + 2(6) + 2 y= -2 (36) + 2 (6) + 2 y= -72 + 12 + 2 y= -60+2 y= -58
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A certain restaurant always overbooks. If possible. At 7:00 pm the restaurant can seat 50 parties, but takes reservations for 53
oee [108]

Answer:

The probability that the restaurant can accommodate all the customers who do show up is 0.3564.

Step-by-step explanation:

The information provided are:

  • At 7:00 pm the restaurant can seat 50 parties, but takes reservations for 53.
  • If the probability of a party not showing up is 0.04.
  • Assuming independence.

Let <em>X</em> denote the number of parties that showed up.

The random variable X follows a Binomial distribution with parameters <em>n</em> = 53 and <em>p</em> = 0.96.

As there are only 50 sets available, the restaurant can accommodate all the customers who do show up if and only if 50 or less customers showed up.

Compute the probability that the restaurant can accommodate all the customers who do show up as follows:

P(X\leq 50)=1-P(X>50)\\=1-P(X=51)-P(X=52)-P(X=53)\\=1-[{53\choose 51}(0.96)^{51}(0.04)^{53-51}]-[{53\choose 52}(0.96)^{52}(0.04)^{53-52}]\\-[{53\choose 53}(0.96)^{53}(0.04)^{53-53}]\\=1-0.27492-0.25377-0.11491\\=0.3564

Thus, the probability that the restaurant can accommodate all the customers who do show up is 0.3564.

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3 years ago
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What are the common factors of 24 and 36
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The answer is a i think
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