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Sergio039 [100]
2 years ago
9

There is a “family” of Z distributions?

Mathematics
1 answer:
iren [92.7K]2 years ago
5 0
<h3>Answer:  False</h3>

Reason:

There is only one Z distribution, which is also known as the standard normal distribution. This distribution has a mean of mu = 0 and a standard deviation of sigma = 1. So unless you consider a family to only have one member, then I'd consider the statement your teacher gave you to be false.

On the other hand, if we were talking about the student T distribution, then this is a family of function curves. The reason being is that the degrees of freedom (df) will change the shape of said curve. The value of df will depend on the sample size n. Recall that df = n-1. As n gets larger, then the T distribution curves will slowly start to look like the Z distribution. For n > 30, the difference is so very minor that it's easier to swap over to the Z distribution even if you don't know sigma.

In other words, there is a family of T distribution curves in which slowly approach to mimicking the Z distribution curve when n is large (usually n > 30).

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A point in geometry is a location.

It has no size, width, length or depth. A point is shown by a dot. A line is defined as a line of points that extends infinitely in two directions.

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3 years ago
You flip 3 coins. Is the probability of obtaining 2 heads and 1 tail in any order the same as the probability of obtaining a hea
konstantin123 [22]

Answer:

the probability of obtaining 2 heads and 1 tail in any order is higher than the probability of obtaining a head, than a head then a tail

Step-by-step explanation:

since the probability (p) of obtaining 2 head and 1 tail in any order is

P1 = p of obtaining ( H , H ,T) + p of obtaining ( H , T ,H ) + p of obtaining ( T , H ,H ) = 3*p of obtaining ( H , T ,H)

assuming a fair coin then p heads = p tails = 0.5

thus since each flip is independent from the others

p( H , H ,T)=p( H , T ,H )= p( T , H ,H )= P=0.5*0.5*0.5= 1/8

thus P1 =3*1/8=3/8

while the probability of obtaining a head, than a head then a tail is

P2= p of obtaining ( H , T ,H)= 1/8

then P1=3/8 >P2=1(8

therefore the probability of obtaining 2 heads and 1 tail in any order is higher than the probability of obtaining a head, than a head then a tail

6 0
3 years ago
Simplify. 12+(38−18)2
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3 years ago
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Xelga [282]

Answer:

3.9 mi/h

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
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Answer: 20 dallors

Step-by-step explanation:

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