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Allushta [10]
2 years ago
5

What is the magnetic field strength at point 1 in the figure? (figure 1)

Physics
1 answer:
Lana71 [14]2 years ago
6 0

The magnetic field strength at point 1 in the figure will be 6.67 ×10⁻⁵ T.

<h3>What is magnetic field strength?</h3>

The number of magnetic flux lines on a unit area passing perpendicular to the given line direction is known as induced magnetic field strength .it is denoted by B.

The magnetic field strength is found as;

B = \frac{\mu_0I}{2r}  \\\\ \mu_0 = 4 \PI \times 10^{-7}

In the formula,I denote current, and r denotes the distance between the point and the current carrying wire and magnetic field due to current in the bottom wire.

At point 1, the net magnetic field is found as the sum of magnetic field due to current in the top wire.

\rm B_{net} = B1_+(-B_2)

B = \frac{ 4 \PI \times 10^{-7}I}{2r}  \\\\  \rm B_{net} = B_1_+(-B_2)\\\\ \rm B_{net} = \frac{4 \times \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 10}{2 \times \pi \times 0.02} -\frac{4 \times \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 10 }{2 \times \pi \times 0.06} \\\\\  \rm B_{net} = 6.67 \times 10^{-5} T

Hence, the magnetic field strength at point 1 in the figure will be 6.67 ×10⁻⁵ T.

To learn more about the strength of induced magnetic field, refer:

brainly.com/question/2248956

#SPJ4

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A temperature of 200 degrees F is equivalent to approximately
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(1) Changing Fahrenheit to Celsius:
The formula used to convert from Fahrenheit to Celsius is as follows:
C = <span>(F - 32) * 5/9
</span>We are given that F=200, substitute in the above formula to get the corresponding temperature in Celsius as follows:
C = (200-32) * (5/9) = 93.333334 degrees Celsius

(2) Changing the Fahrenheit to kelvin:
The formula used to convert from Fahrenheit to kelvin is as follows:
K = <span>(F - 32) * 5/9 + 273.15
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K = (200-32)*(5/9) + 273.15 = 366.483334 degrees kelvin


5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A monkey running through the jungle goes 0.198 km straight to the East, then turns 15.8° deflection from straight East toward th
inn [45]

Answer:

|\vec r|=339.82\ m

\theta=-6.67^o

Explanation:

<u>Displacement </u>

It's a vector magnitude that measures the space traveled by a particle between an initial and a final position. The total displacement can be obtained by adding the vectors of each individual displacement. In the case of two displacements:

\vec r=\vec r_1+\vec r_2

Given a vector as its polar coordinates (r,\theta), the corresponding rectangular coordinates are computed with

x=rcos\theta

y=rsin\theta

And the vector is expressed as

\vec z==

The monkey first makes a displacement given by (0.198 km,0°). The angle is 0 because it goes to the East, the zero-reference for angles. Thus the first displacement is

\vec r_1==\ km=\ m

The second move is (145 m , -15.8°). The angle is negative because it points South of East. The second displacement is

\vec r_2==\ m

The total displacement is

\vec r=\ m+\ m

\vec r=\ m

In (magnitude,angle) form:

|\vec r|=\sqrt{337.52^2+(-39.48)^2}=339.82\ m

\boxed{|\vec r|=339.82\ m}

\displaystyle tan\theta=\frac{-39.48}{337.52}=-0.1169

\boxed{\theta=-6.67^o}

5 0
4 years ago
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Answer:

A.

Explanation:

Earth is composed of different layers and one layer moves over another due to differences in the densities.

According to the physics of density, a substance having less density floats over a higher density substance. The oceanic crust has more density than the continental crust that is why continental crust float over oceanic crust.

So in the given example, plate B is moving below the plate A, it means plate B is more dense than plate A because plate B is composed of oceanic crust . <u>For example : continents float over the asthenosphere (a layer below the lithosphere).</u>

Hence, the correct answer is "A ".

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The first statement is false, the Sun has a stronger gravitational pull.

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