Order the fractions from least to greatest.

Mathematics

1 answer:

pantera1 [17]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

that would be c

Step-by-step explanation:

is because it is least to greatest I hope this helps you

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Your car lease requires a down payment of $1,500 and payments of $450 per month for 36 months. the apr is 6% compounded monthly

Svetach [21]

Monthly interest, i = APR/12 = 0.06/12 = 0.005
Monthly payment, A = $450
Period, n = 36 (months)
Future value of payment
= A((1+i)^n-1)/i
= 450((1.005^36-1)/0.005
= 17701.2472341
Future value of car
F = future value of payment + residual value
= 17701.2472341 + 20000
= 37701.2472341

Present value of car
= downpayment + present value of future payments
= 1500 + F/(1+i)^36
= 1500 + 37701.2472341/(1.005^36)
= 1500 + 31504.86
= 33004.86

8 0

3 years ago

Given the triangle below, solve for X.

Dima020 [189]

Answer:

19.8494332413? Sorry I couldn't be more helpful.

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the Pythagorean theorem.

$a^{2}+b^2=c^2\\13^2+15^2=x^2\\169+225=x^2\\394=x^2\\19.8494332413=x


$

5 0

2 years ago

Jackson is playing a game of chance where he must randomly draw a marble out of a jar. He calculates the probability of drawing

Sindrei [870]

Using complementary events, considering a $\frac{1}{4}$ probability of drawing a red marble, the probability of not drawing a red marble is of $\frac{3}{4}$ .

<h3>What are complementary events?</h3>

They are mutually exclusive events which have the sum of their probabilities as 1.

In this problem, we consider that there is a $\frac{1}{4}$ probability of drawing a red marble, and since drawing a red marble and drawing a non-red marble are complementary events, we have that:

$\frac{1}{4} + p = 1$