Answer:
1/8
Step-by-step explanation:
This is actually pretty easy.
First, you have the sample of the children.
You know that the family with 3 children, can only have the following children:
MMM: all males
MMF: 2 males, 1 female
MFF: 1 male, 2 females
MFM: 2 males, 1 female (different order)
FMM: 1 female, 2 males
FFM: 2 females, 1 male
FMF: 2 females, 1 male
FFF: 3 females
If you count all of these possibilities, we have 8 possible cases of family with the childrens.
In only one of them, we have only females and no males, which is the last one, all 3 females.
Therefore, the probability to select a family with no male, is only 1/8.
Answer:
x^2 -2
Step-by-step explanation:
f(x) = x^2 -3
g(x) = x+1
Put f(x) in for x in the function g(x)
g(f(x)) = f(x) +1 = x^2 -3+1 = x^2 -2
3 1/2 I'm guessing this would be it