Answer:
a) No
b) 42%
c) 8%
d) X 0 1 2
P(X) 42% 50% 8%
e) 0.62
Step-by-step explanation:
a) No, the two games are not independent because the the probability you win the second game is dependent on the probability that you win or lose the second game.
b) P(lose first game) = 1 - P(win first game) = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6
P(lose second game) = 1 - P(win second game) = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7
P(lose both games) = P(lose first game) × P(lose second game) = 0.6 × 0.7 = 0.42 = 42%
c) P(win first game) = 0.4
P(win second game) = 0.2
P(win both games) = P(win first game) × P(win second game) = 0.4 × 0.2 = 0.08 = 8%
d) X 0 1 2
P(X) 42% 50% 8%
P(X = 0) = P(lose both games) = P(lose first game) × P(lose second game) = 0.6 × 0.7 = 0.42 = 42%
P(X = 1) = [ P(lose first game) × P(win second game)] + [ P(win first game) × P(lose second game)] = ( 0.6 × 0.3) + (0.4 × 0.8) = 0.18 + 0.32 = 0.5 = 50%
e) The expected value 
f) Variance 
Standard deviation 
Ratio is 6:5
6+5=11
Men: 6 parts of 11 = 3600
6=3600
1=x
X=3600/6
=600.
Women: 5 parts of 11
1 part = 600
5 parts = 600x5
=3000
Answer:
-24 - 57i
Step-by-step explanation:
i'm assuming that this is a question about imaginary numbers and that i²= -1
we can expand the binomial by using the FOIL method (see attached)
(6 − 7i)(3 − 6i)
= (6)(3) + (6)(-6i) + (-7i)(3) + (-7i)(-6i)
=18 - 36i - 21i + 42i² (recall that i²= -1)
= 18 - 57i + 42(-1)
= 18 - 57i - 42
= -24 - 57i
Answer:
sorry but i don't know how...just doing my job
to get 400 points. sorry ;{
Step-by-step explanation: