Answer:
Allocated MOH= $180,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Manufacturing overhead is applied to jobs based on direct labor costs using a predetermined overhead rate.
The estimated manufacturing overhead costs are $360,000 and direct labor costs $400,000.
First, we need to calculate the MOH rate:
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 360000/400000= $0.9 per direct labor dollar.
The actual manufacturing labor costs for job 3 are $200,000.
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 0.9*200000= $180,000
Answer:
b. 1,062.81
Explanation:
the key to answer this question is to remember that valuation of a bond depends basically of calculating the present value of a series of cash flows, so let´s think about a bond as if you were a lender so you will get interest by the money you lend (coupon) and at the end of n years you will get back the money you lend at the beginnin (principal), so applying math we have the bond value given by:
where: principal as said before is the value lended, coupon is the rate of interest paid, i is the interest rate and n is the number of periods
so applying to this particular exercise, as it is not said we will assume that 6% and 7% are interest rate convertible seminually, so the price of the bond will be:
price=1,062.81
take into account that here we are asked about semianually payments, so in 8 years there are 16 semesters.
Answer:
Given that,
Value of bonds issued = $100,000
Maturity period = 10 years
Bonds were issued at face value.
Interest rate = 8%
Interest is paid once per year on December 31.
Since, the bonds are issued at the face value, so there would be no premium or discount on the issue of bonds.
The cash is received by the company for issuing bonds and it is debited. We know that bonds are a part of liabilities, so they are credited
Therefore, the journal entry is as follows:
Cash A/c Dr. $100,000
To bonds payable $100,000
(To record the issuance of bonds)
Answer:
(3) to protect his/her other assets with limited liability.
Explanation:
The reason a professional such as a lawyer or doctor would incorporate his/her business is to protect his/her other assets with limited liability. Limited liability will be very good option for the professionals such as lawyer and doctors because it provides a sense of security. Limited liability secures the owners from any kind of loss if happens in business. Although, it is obviously much costlier but personal assets of the owners are also secured in the case if the business goes bankrupt therefore, it is the very best option for the professionals.
Answer:
The effect on the sale of PV1 would be $3,000 and on PV2 it is $1,500
Explanation:
For computing the effect on the ordinary income, we have to do the following adjustment which is shown below:
PV1 = Sale price-adjusted basis
= $8,000 - $5,000
= $3,000
The $3,000 represent the short term capital gain, and it is a short term capital gain because the equipment is sold in less than 1 year
PV2 = Sale price-adjusted basis
= $16,000 - $18,000
= - $2,000
The $ -2,000 represents the long term capital loss , and it is a long term capital loss because the equipment is sold in more than 1 year
So, the effect on the sale of PV1 would be $3,000 and on PV2 it is $1,500 because the deduction is allowed to a maximum of $1,500
