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olasank [31]
2 years ago
12

Question 9 Multiple Choice Worth 1 points)

Mathematics
1 answer:
beks73 [17]2 years ago
8 0

Answer: \bold{10 = \sqrt {\left( {x- 8 } \right)^2 + \left( {y - 9 } \right)^2 }}

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Given:</u>

The coordinates of Point A: (8, 9)

The coordinates of Point B are unknown: (x, y)

The distance from A to B is 10 units

Then, using the distance formula:

AB = \sqrt {\left( {x- 8 } \right)^2 + \left( {y - 9 } \right)^2 }

Therefore,

10 = \sqrt {\left( {x- 8 } \right)^2 + \left( {y - 9 } \right)^2 }

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Change the following expression to an equivalent expression in exponential form
Sever21 [200]

Answer:

12^4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

When doing this you put the number the base is raised to on top of the fraction and the root number on the bottom

8 0
3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=8x%20-%206%20%2B%2011x%20%2B%202%20%2B%203x%20-%205" id="TexFormula1" title="8x - 6 + 11x + 2
ollegr [7]

8x - 6 + 2 + 3x - 5
Combine like terms
11x - 9
This is the answer
6 0
3 years ago
Name the subset(s) of real numbers to which each number belongs. Then order the numbers from least to greatest.
barxatty [35]

Answer:

I'm assuming 45−−√ is \sqrt{45}, and that it belongs to the subset of irrational numbers.

16/5 is a rational number, and -1 is an integer.

All numbers belong to the subset of real numbers.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helped!

7 0
3 years ago
A company establishes a fund of 120 from which it wants to pay an amount,C, to any of its 20 employees who achieve a high-perfor
Leno4ka [110]

Answer:

C=120/2=60

Step by step Explanation'

To solve this problem, we will need to apply trial-and-error calculation with the binomial distribution, even though it appears like Central Limit Theorem but it's not.

For us to know the value of C , we will look for a minimum integer such that having 'n' number of high performance level of employee has the probability below 0.01.

Determine the maximum value of C, then the maximum value that C can have is 120/n

Let us represent X as the number of employees with high performance with a binomial distribution of

P =0.02( since the percentage of chance of achieving a high performance level is 2%)

n = 20 ( number of employees who achieve a high performance level)

The probability of X= 0 can be calculated

P( X= 0) = 0.98^n

P(X=0)=0.98^20

P(X=0)=0.668

P(X=1)=0.02*20*0.98^19

P(X=1)=0.272

P(X=2)=0.02^2*20*0.98^18

P(X=2)=0.053

Summation of P( X= 0)+ P( X= 1)+P( X= 2) will give us the value of 0.993 which is greater than 0.99( 1% that the fund will be inadequate to cover all payments for high performance.)

BUT the summation of P( X= 0)+ P( X= 1) will give the value of 0.94 which doesn't exceed the 0.99 value,

Therefore, the minimum value of integer in such a way that P(X >2) is less than 0.01 have n= 2

then the maximum value that C can have is 120/n

C=120/2=60

7 0
3 years ago
Provide an appropriate response.
oksian1 [2.3K]
You don't even have to look up the definition of 'standard deviation'.  You only
have to remember that 'smaller standard deviation' means 'less spread-out'.

First, let's find the mean (average).  It's not supposed to change:

1/7th of (65 + 71 + 77 + 80 + 82 + 90 + 96) = 561/7 = <u>80 and 1/7</u> .

Now, just pick 7 scores that total 561 and are all bunched up.

The easiest way would be 80, 80, 80, 80, 80, 80, 81 .
But that's so easy that it feels like cheating.

Let's say <u>77, 78, 79, 80, 81, 82, and 84</u> .
8 0
3 years ago
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