Answer:
Explanation:
1. Calculate the efficiency variance for variable overhead setup costs.
This will be calculated as:
= Standard Hours - Actual Hours) × Standard rate
= (15000/225 × 5.25 - 15000/250 × 5) × 38
= (350 - 300) × 38
= 50 × 38
= 1900 Favourable
2) Calculate the rate variance for variable overhead setup costs.
This will be:
= Standard rate- Actual rate) × Actual Hour
= (38-40) × (15000/250 × 5)
= -2 × 300
= -600 Unfavourable
3) Calculate the flexible-budget spending variance for variable overhead setup costs.
This will be the difference between the standard cost and the actual cost. This will be:
= (15000/225×5.25 ×38) - (15000/250×5 ×40)
= 13300 - 12000
= 1300 Favourable
4) Calculate the spending variance for fixed setup overhead costs.
what formular did you use.
This will be:
= Standard Cost - Actual Cost
= 9975-12000
= -2025 Unfavorable
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Outsourcing is when a company gives some of its internal activities to an external party that takes the responsibility to get things done and one of the reasons for a company to do this is to get rid of activities that have to get done but that are not part of their core operations to be able to concentrate on their main activity and get those things done by experts which can help increase productivity. According to that, the answer is that the statement is true.
Answer:
$5/unit
Explanation:
In the theory of production cost, the relationships between average total cost and marginal cost are as follows:
1. When the average cost is increasing, the marginal cost will be greater than the average cost.
2. When the average cost is decreasing, the marginal cost will be less than the average cost.
3. When the average cost at the minimum, the marginal cost equals the average cost.
Based on number 3 above, the marginal cost when the firm produces 10 units is $5/unit since the firm's average total cost is minimized when it produces 10 units.
Answer:
The correct answer is $12,000.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Shares issues On Jan.1 Year 1 = 4,000 shares
Par value of shares = $50 par
Cumulative preferred stock = 6%
So, we can calculate the dividend arrearage as of January 1, Year 2 by using following formula:
Dividend as of Jan.1, year 2 = Shares issues On Jan.1 Year 1 × Par value of shares × Cumulative preferred stock
= 4,000 × $50 × 6%
= $12,000
