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Vlad [161]
2 years ago
5

Please help me with the below question.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Snezhnost [94]2 years ago
6 0

6a. By the convolution theorem,

L\{t^3\star e^{5t}\} = L\{t^3\} \times L\{e^{5t}\} = \dfrac6{s^4} \times \dfrac1{s-5} = \boxed{\dfrac5{s^4(s-5)}}

6b. Similarly,

L\{e^{3t}\star \cos(t)\} = L\{e^{3t}\} \times L\{\cos(t)\} = \dfrac1{s-3} \times \dfrac s{1+s^2} = \boxed{\dfrac s{(s-3)(s^2+1)}}

7. Take the Laplace transform of both sides, noting that the integral is the convolution of e^t and f(t).

\displaystyle f(t) = 3 - 4 \int_0^t e^\tau f(t - \tau) \, d\tau

\implies \displaystyle F(s) = \dfrac3s - 4 F(s) G(s)

where g(t) = e^t. Then G(s) = \frac1{s-1}, and

F(s) = \dfrac3s - \dfrac4{s-1} F(s) \implies F(s) = \dfrac{\frac3s}{\frac{s+3}{s-1}} = 3\dfrac{s-1}{s(s+3)}

We have the partial fraction decomposition,

\dfrac{s-1}{s(s+3)} = \dfrac13 \left(-\dfrac1s + \dfrac4{s+3}\right)

Then we can easily compute the inverse transform to solve for f(t) :

F(s) = -\dfrac1s + \dfrac4{s+3}

\implies \boxed{f(t) = -1 + 4e^{-3t}}

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Step-by-step explanation:

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The 2 in 21 represents how many times the value of the 2 in 82?
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An airplane flies from City 1 at (0, 0) to City 2 at (33, 56) and then to City 3 at (23, 32). What is the total number of miles
uranmaximum [27]

Answer:

The airplane flies 95 miles.

Step-by-step explanation:

  1. First we need to find the distance for the first segment using the formula for distance D=\sqrt{(x_{2}-x_{1})^2 + (y_{2}-y_{1})^2}. Let's say (x_{1},y_{1}) is (0, 0) and (x_{2},y_{2}) is (33, 56). This gets us that the length of this segment is 65 miles.
  2. Next, we need to find the distance for the second segment. Using the same formula for distance  D=\sqrt{(x_{2}-x_{1})^2 + (y_{2}-y_{1})^2}, we can say (x_{1},y_{1}) is now (33, 56) and (x_{2},y_{2}) is now (23, 32). This gets us that the length of this segment is 26 miles.
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<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B%5Csec%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29%7D%7B%5Ccos%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29%7D-%5Cfrac%7B%5Csin%5
DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

First, convert all the secants and cosecants to cosine and sine, respectively. Recall that csc(x)=1/sin(x) and sec(x)=1/cos(x).

Thus:

\frac{sec(x)}{cos(x)} -\frac{sin(x)}{csc(x)cos^2(x)}

=\frac{\frac{1}{cos(x)} }{cos(x)} -\frac{sin(x)}{\frac{1}{sin(x)}cos^2(x) }

Let's do the first part first: (Recall how to divide fractions)

\frac{\frac{1}{cos(x)} }{cos(x)}=\frac{1}{cos(x)} \cdot \frac{1}{cos(x)}=\frac{1}{cos^2(x)}

For the second term:

\frac{sin(x)}{\frac{cos^2(x)}{sin(x)} } =\frac{sin(x)}{1} \cdot\frac{sin(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}

So, all together: (same denominator; combine terms)

\frac{1}{cos^2(x)}-\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{1-sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}

Note the numerator; it can be derived from the Pythagorean Identity:

sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1; cos^2(x)=1-sin^2(x)

Thus, we can substitute the numerator:

\frac{1-sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{cos^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=1

Everything simplifies to 1.

7 0
3 years ago
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