Answer:
521418
Step-by-step explanation:
The equation would be 40+15p=70+5p. You would subtract 5p from each side (15-5) and (5-5) and you'll have 40+10p=70. You would then subtract 40 from each side (70-40) and (40-40) to have 10p=30. You would divide by both of the sides by 10, you would end up with p=3. P is price training. The reason you divide and subtract on both sides is because you want the months to be on one side and the price training on the other side.
Answer:
The correct ans is 3.
g(-2) = 2(-2) + 5
=-4 + 5 = 1
f(g(-2)) = 4 - (1)^2
= 4 - 1
=3
Step-by-step explanation:
Hopefully try is works. Took me a few hrs to figure it out but I think I got it
