Answer:
a) 0.487
b) refrigeration load = 5.46w
c) cop = 2.24
d)ref load max = 12.43kw
Explanation:
Answer:
33.56 ft^3/sec.in
Explanation:
Duration = 6 hours
drainage area = 185 mi^2
constant baseflow = 550 cfs
<u>Derive the unit hydrograph using the inverse procedure </u>
first step : calculate for the volume of direct runoff hydrograph using the details in table 2 attached below
Vdrh = sum of drh * duration
= 29700 * 6 hours ( 216000 secs )
= 641,520,000 ft^3.
next step : Calculate the volume of runoff in equivalent depth
Vdrh / Area = 641,520,000 / 185 mi^2
= 1.49 in
Finally derive the unit hydrograph
Unit of hydrograph = drh / volume of runoff in equivalent depth
= 50 ft^3 / 1.49 in = 33.56 ft^3/sec.in
Answer:
Explanation:
Products of oil in our everyday life:
(1) Petro-Chemical Feedstock: These are by product of Refining of Oil which it is used extensively to make PET bottles, Paints, Polyester Shirts, Pocket combs e.t.c
(2) Asphalt : Used extensively to make Motor Road, highways
(3) Plastics : we use plastics in our everyday life, this is also a product of Refining of crude oil e.g PVC, Telephone casing, Tapes e.t.c
(4) Lubricating Oil/Grease : This is another product from crude oil Fractional Distillation.
(5) Propane/ Cooking Gas: This is also a product from oil which is used in our everyday life for cooking, grilling etc.
Answer:
a) What is the surface temperature, in °C, after 400 s?
T (0,400 sec) = 800°C
b) Yes, the surface temperature is greater than the ignition temperature of oak (400°C) after 400 s
c) What is the temperature, in °C, 1 mm from the surface after 400 s?
T (1 mm, 400 sec) = 798.35°C
Explanation:
oak initial Temperature = 25°C = 298 K
oak exposed to gas of temp = 800°C = 1073 K
h = 20 W/m².K
From the book, Oak properties are e=545kg/m³ k=0.19w/m.k Cp=2385J/kg.k
Assume: Volume = 1 m³, and from energy balance the heat transfer is an unsteady state.
From energy balance: 
Initial temperature wall = 
Surface temperature = T
Gas exposed temperature = 
It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.
<h3>What is
Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>
The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!
<h3>
What is the explanation for the above?</h3>
as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:
F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!
If F(0) = Cot 0
F(0) = ∝ = 1/0
This is not definitive,
Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.
Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
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