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iogann1982 [59]
2 years ago
10

Charging the system is being discussed. Technician A says that the refrigerant must be weighed (or metered) to obtain a proper c

harge. Technician B says that overcharging the system will reduce its cooling efficiency. Who is correct
Engineering
1 answer:
andrey2020 [161]2 years ago
7 0

Charging the system is being discussed. Technician A is correct and Technician B is incorrect because overcharging can cause the system to reduce it capacity, but it does not reduce its cooling efficiency.

<h3>What is a coolant?</h3>

The coolants are the liquid that are present in machines to prevent the  heating of the system or machines. Because machine and cars run they generate lots of heat that why there are coolants present.

Thus, the correct option is Technician A.

Learn more about coolant

brainly.com/question/11912897

#SPJ1

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A commercial refrigerator with refrigerant -134a as the working fluid is used to keep the refrigerated space at -30C by rejectin
Mariana [72]

Answer:

a) 0.487

b) refrigeration load = 5.46w

c) cop = 2.24

d)ref load max = 12.43kw

Explanation:

6 0
4 years ago
Read 3 more answers
Given below are the measured streamflows in cfs from a storm of 6-hour duration on a stream having a drainage area of 185 mi^2.
sertanlavr [38]

Answer:

33.56 ft^3/sec.in

Explanation:

Duration = 6 hours

drainage area = 185 mi^2

constant baseflow = 550 cfs

<u>Derive the unit hydrograph using the inverse procedure </u>

first step : calculate for the volume of direct runoff hydrograph using the details in table 2 attached below

Vdrh = sum of drh *  duration

        = 29700 * 6 hours ( 216000 secs )

        = 641,520,000 ft^3.

next step : Calculate the volume of runoff in equivalent depth

Vdrh / Area = 641,520,000  / 185 mi^2

                    = 1.49 in

Finally derive the unit hydrograph

Unit of hydrograph = drh /  volume of runoff in equivalent depth

                                = 50 ft^3 / 1.49 in  =  33.56 ft^3/sec.in

5 0
3 years ago
We can process oil into a lot of useful fuels to run our cars, trucks, and even airplanes. Oil is used for making lots of other
Ostrovityanka [42]

Answer:

Explanation:

Products of oil in our everyday life:

(1) Petro-Chemical Feedstock: These are by product of Refining of Oil which it is used extensively to make PET bottles, Paints, Polyester Shirts, Pocket combs e.t.c

(2) Asphalt : Used extensively to make Motor Road, highways

(3) Plastics : we use plastics in our everyday life, this is also a product of Refining of crude oil e.g PVC, Telephone casing, Tapes e.t.c

(4) Lubricating Oil/Grease : This is another product from crude oil Fractional Distillation.

(5) Propane/ Cooking Gas: This is also a product from oil which is used in our everyday life for cooking, grilling etc.

4 0
3 years ago
A thick oak wall initially at 25°C is suddenly exposed to gases for which T =800°C and h =20 W/m2.K. Answer the following questi
Schach [20]

Answer:

a) What is the surface temperature, in °C, after 400 s?

   T (0,400 sec) = 800°C

b) Yes, the surface temperature is greater than the ignition temperature of oak (400°C) after 400 s

c) What is the temperature, in °C, 1 mm from the surface after 400 s?

   T (1 mm, 400 sec) = 798.35°C

Explanation:

oak initial Temperature = 25°C = 298 K

oak exposed to gas of temp = 800°C = 1073 K

h = 20 W/m².K

From the book, Oak properties are e=545kg/m³   k=0.19w/m.k   Cp=2385J/kg.k

Assume: Volume = 1 m³, and from energy balance the heat transfer is an unsteady state.

From energy balance: \frac{T - T_{\infty}}{T_i - T_{\infty}} = Exp (\frac{-hA}{evCp})t

Initial temperature wall = T_i

Surface temperature = T

Gas exposed temperature = T_{\infty}

6 0
4 years ago
X cotx expansion using maclaurins theorem.
Lemur [1.5K]

It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.

<h3>What is Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>

The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

<h3>What is the explanation for the above?</h3>

as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:

F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

If F(0) = Cot 0

F(0) = ∝ = 1/0

This is not definitive,

Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.

Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
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